Hesi Med Surg Exam Test Questions with Answers Graded A+, Exams of Nursing

Hesi Med Surg Exam Test Questions with Answers Graded A+

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2025/2026

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Hesi Med Surg Exam Test Questions with Answers Graded A+
The
nurse
is
assessing
a
client
with
bacterial
meningitis.
Which
assessment
finding
indicates
the
client
may
have
developed septic emboli?
A.
Cyanosis
of
the
fingertips.
B.
Bradycardia
and
bradypnea.
C.
Presence
of
S3
and
S4
heart
sounds.
D.
3+
pitting
edema
of
the
lower
extremities.
A 77-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital. She
is confused, has no appetite, is nauseated and vomiting,
and is complaining of a headache. Her pulse rate is 43
beats per minute. It is most important for the nurse to
assess for which finding?
A.
Wearing
dentures.
B.
Use
of
aspirin
prior
to
admit.
C.
Prescribed
nitroglycerin
for
chest
pain.
D.
Takes
digitalis.
A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for
five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis
because her mother has the condition. Which information
should the nurse otter?
A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no
ettective treatment.
B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing
calcium intake and exercise.
C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to
prevent the progression osteoporosis.
D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment ettectively halts the
course of osteoporosis.
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry
monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In deter-
A.
Cyanosis
of
the
fingertips.
Septic
emboli
secondary
to
meningitis
commonly
lodge
in
the
small
arterioles
of
the
extremities,
causing
a
decrease
in circulation to the hands which may lead to gangrene.
D.
Takes
digitalis.
Although it is important to obtain a complete medication
history, the symptoms described are classic for digitalis
toxicity, and assessment of this problem should be made
promptly. Elderly persons are particularly susceptible to
digitalis intoxication which manifests itself in such symp-
toms as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache,
and fatigue.
B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing
calcium intake and exercise.
Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due
to the cessation of estrogen secretion, but a regimen
including calcium, vitamin D, and weight-bearing exercise
can help prevent further bone loss.
pf3
pf4
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The nurse is assessing a client with bacterial meningitis. Which assessment finding indicates the client may have developed septic emboli? A. Cyanosis of the fingertips. B. Bradycardia and bradypnea. C. Presence of S3 and S4 heart sounds. D. 3+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. A 77-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital. She is confused, has no appetite, is nauseated and vomiting, and is complaining of a headache. Her pulse rate is 43 beats per minute. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which finding? A. Wearing dentures. B. Use of aspirin prior to admit. C. Prescribed nitroglycerin for chest pain. D. Takes digitalis. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse otter? A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no ettective treatment. B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise. C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression osteoporosis. D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment ettectively halts the course of osteoporosis. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In deter- A. Cyanosis of the fingertips. Septic emboli secondary to meningitis commonly lodge in the small arterioles of the extremities, causing a decrease in circulation to the hands which may lead to gangrene. D. Takes digitalis. Although it is important to obtain a complete medication history, the symptoms described are classic for digitalis toxicity, and assessment of this problem should be made promptly. Elderly persons are particularly susceptible to digitalis intoxication which manifests itself in such symp- toms as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, and fatigue. B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise. Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion, but a regimen including calcium, vitamin D, and weight-bearing exercise can help prevent further bone loss.

mining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia? A. Propanolol. B. Captopril. C. Furosemide. D. Dobutamine. The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding would the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy? A. An increase in abdominal girth. B. Hypertension and a bounding pulse. C. Decreased bowel sounds. D. Diflculty in handwriting. An older adult male client comes to the geriatric screening clinic complaining of pain in his left calf. The nurse notices a reddened area on the calf of his right leg which is warm to the touch and suspects it might be thrombophlebitis. Which type of pain would further confirm this suspicion? A. Pain in the calf awakening him from a sound sleep. B. Calf pain on exertion which stops when standing in one place. C. Pain in the calf upon exertion which is relieved by rest and elevating the extremity. D. Pain upon arising in the morning which is relieved after some stretching and exercise. The nurse is completing an admission interview and as- sessment on a client with a history of Parkinson's dis- A. Propanolol. Propanolol is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased heart rate and decreased contractility. D. Diflculty in handwriting. A daily record in handwriting may provide evidence of progression of hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma. B. Calf pain on exertion which stops when standing in one place. Pain in the calf upon exertion which is relieved by rest and elevating the extremity. Thrombophlebitis pain is relieved by rest and elevation of the extremity. It typically occurs with exercise at the site of the thrombus, and is aggravated by placing the extremity in a dependent position, such as standing in one place.

find when reviewing laboratory values of an 80 - year-old male? A. Increased WBC, decreased RBC. B. Increased serum bilirubin, slightly increased liver en- zymes. C. Increased protein in the urine, slightly increased serum glucose levels. D. Decreased serum sodium, an increased urine specific gravity. Which description of pain is consistent with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Joint pain is worse in the morning and involves symmet- ric joints. B. Joint pain is better in the morning and worsens throughout the day. C. Joint pain is consistent throughout the day and is re- lieved by pain medication. D. Joint pain is worse during the day and involves unilat- eral joints. After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, con- centrated urinary output of 54 mL for the last 2 hours. Which priority nursing action should be implemented? A. Report the findings to the surgeon. Correct B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter. C. Apply manual pressure to the bladder. D. Increase the IV flow rate for 15 minutes. During an interview with a client planning elective surgery, the client asks the nurse, "What is the advantage of having a preferred provider organization insurance plan?" Which C. Increased protein in the urine, slightly increased serum glucose levels. As older adults age, the protein found in urine slightly rises as a result of kidney changes, and the serum glucose increases slightly, also due to changes in the kidney. A. Joint pain is worse in the morning and involves symmet- ric joints. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an autoimmune disease that causes joint pain and swelling. RA is characterized by pain that is worse when arising and involves symmetric joints. A. Report the findings to the surgeon. After surgery, an adult who weighs 132 pounds ( kg) should produce about 60 mL of urine hourly ( mL/kg/hour). Dark, concentrated, and low volume of urine output should be reported to the surgeon. C. An individual may select healthcare providers from out- side of the PPO network.

response is best for the nurse to provide? A. Neither plan allows selections of healthcare providers or hospitals. B. There are fewer healthcare providers to choose from than in an HMO plan. C. An individual may select healthcare providers from out- side of the PPO network. D. An individual can become a member of a PPO without belonging to a group. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which clinical cues should the nurse describe when teaching the client about hypoglycemia? A. Sweating, trembling, tachycardia. B. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia. C. Nausea, vomiting, anorexia. D. Fruity breath, tachypnea, chest pain. Despite several eye surgeries, a 78-year-old client who lives alone has persistent vision problems. The visiting nurse is discussing home safety hazards with the client. The nurse suggests that the edges of the steps be painted which color? A. Black. B. White. C. Light green. D. Medium yellow. The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect an increase in the serum level? The financial implication of selecting a provider from outside of the network is the feature most relevant to the average consumer. The nurse must have knowledge about preferred provider organizations (PPOs), which provides the option for the consumer to select a Health- care Provider (HCP) from within the PPO network (in-net- work) at a reduced cost versus a higher cost for selecting an out-of-network HCP. A. Sweating, trembling, tachycardia. Sweating, dizziness, and trembling are signs of hypo- glycemic reactions related to the release of epinephrine as a compensatory response to the low blood sugar. The 3 P's are for hyperglycemia D. Medium yellow. The color yellow is the easiest for a person with failing vision to see. A. Sodium Clients with primary aldosteronism exhibit an increase in serum sodium levels (hypernatremia) and have pro- found decline in the serum levels of potassium (hy-

C. serum potassium level is 3. D. apical pulse is 68/min. The nurse is teaching a female client about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should the nurse provide? A. Two weeks before menstruation. B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick. C. Low basal temperature. D. First thing in the morning. gerous dysrhythmias (normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5. mEq/L). A. Two weeks before menstruation. Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28 day cycle. Sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation for an increase chance of conception to occur. High estrogen levels oc- cur during ovulation and increase the vaginal mucous membrane characteristics to become more "slippery" and stretchy, along with a rise in basal temperature. The timing during the day is not as significant in determining con- ception as the day before and after ovulation.