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Honors Biology Semester 1 Final Questions with
Solved Solutions
1. What are the steps of the scientific method?: Observation, question, hypoth- esis, experiment,
analysis, conclusion
2. What are the 7 characteristics of living things?: CHEMGER: cells, homeosta- tis, energy,
metabolism, growth, evolution, reproduction
3. What is the difference between a molecule, atom, compound, and element? (give an example):
order in size: atom, element, molecule, compound O O H2O H2O atoms make elements 2+ atoms make molecules 2+ elements make compounds
4. How is an ion different than an atom? (2 reasons): an ion has a net charge and has lost or
gain electrons
5. How are ionic compounds different than covalent?: ionic compounds combine a positive and
negatively charged atom covalent compounds combine two postively charged atoms
6. How are ionic bonds different than covalent?: ionic bonds steal electrons and covalent bonds
share electrons
7. On a pH scale, where do acids fall?: 1- 7
8. On a pH scale, where do bases fall?: 7- 14
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9. On a pH scale, where do nuetral items fall?: 7
10. What is an example of a common acid?: lemon juice, vinegar, apple juice
11. What is an example of a common base?: ammonia
12. What is an example of a common neutral item?: water
13. What is the ratio of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in carbohydrates?: C H2 O (1-2-1)
14. What is the ration of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in lipids?: C H(3+) O (1->2-1)
15. How do amino acid (protein) formulas differ from carbs or lipids or nucleic acids?: the have an
NH
16. What do nucleic acids have that other organic compounds do not?: PO
17. What are the four organic compounds?: carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids
18. Which of the following is an organic compounds?
a) Ca3 (PO4 )
b) H2 O
c)CO d) C6 H12 O6: d) C6 H12 O
19. What does most nucleic acid look like?: double stranded or double helix
20. What are the two most common nucleic acids?: DNA and RNA
21. What is a monosaccharide?: single sugar
22. What is a disaccharide?: double sugar (ie: glucose and fructose)
23. What is a polysaccharide?: complex carb with three or more sugars
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41. Which common organic molecule type is often attached to a membrane protein that acts as an ID
scanner before molecules can enter cell?: carbohy- drate
42. What is special about the cell membrane?: it is selectively permeable
43. What is the role of the membrane proteins?: to recognize and transport things into/out of the
cell
44. What is the mitochondria and what major proccess is it part of?: energy and protein factory
that is involved in cellular respiration
45. What are the two types of Endoplasmic Reticulums (ERs)?: smooth and rough
46. What is the role of the ER?: serves as a "highway" for molecules
47. What do the ribosomes produce?: proteins
48. Where in the cell do MOST of the cell's chemical reations take place?: cy- toplasm
49. What is the role of the Golgi bodies in a cell?: to label, package, modify and ship proteins
50. What is the role of the Vacuoles in a cell?: to store water, energy and food
51. Which cell has a central vacuole and what does it do?: stores water; only in plants
52. Which cell has lysosomes, what are they nicknamed and what do they do?: AKA suicide
sacks; kill damaged cell part; only in animals
53. What is the cytoskeleton and what is it's role in the cell?: network of tubes and filaments in the
cytoplasm that transports things
54. What is make-up of the cell membrane?: it contains a phospholipids bi-layer (made of
phosphates and lipids)
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55. When large pieces or a large quantity of water or ions are needed and diffusion, osmosis or
facilitated diffusion will not work, how will a cell trap what it needs to BRING IN materials?: active transport - endocytosis
56. When very large pieces or a large quantity of water or ions are needed and diffusion, osmosis
or facilitated diffusion will not work, how will a cell REMOVE material?: active transport - exocytosis
57. What is an isotonic solution?: equal water-salt ratio outside of a cell
58. What is a hypotonic solution?: more water than salt outside of a cell
59. What is a hypertonic solution?: more salt than water outside of a cell
60. Distinguish between the reactant and product.: reactions start with the reac- tant and end with
the product
61. What are the reactants needed by photosyntheisis?: CO2 and H2O
62. What are the reactants needed by cellular respiration?: C6H12O6 and O
63. What energy molecule is produced by cellular respiration?: ATP energy
64. Why is NADP+ important in photosythesis?: it accepts and carries electrons and enters the
Calvin Cylce as NADPH
65. Why is NADH and FADH2 important to the Electron Transport Chain of cellular respiration?:
when NADH and FADH2 release H atoms ATP is produced
66. Do plant, animal or both cells go through photosythesis?: plant
67. Do plant, animal or both cells go through cellular respiration?: both
68. Is CO2 (carbon dioxide) an organic compound?: no
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83. During what phase of Meiosis do four haploid daughter cells form?: -
Telophase 2 (cytokinesis)
84. During what phase of Meiosis do cells undergo a round of DNA replica- tion?: Prophase 1
85. During what phase of Meiosis do sister chromatids separate from each other?: Anaphase 2
86. During what phase of Meiosis do chromosomes form tetrads?: Prophase 1
87. During what phase of Meiosis do two haploid daughter cells form?: -
Telophase 1 (cytokinesis)
88. During what phase of Meiosis do spindle fibers attach to the homologous chromsomes?: early
Metaphase 1
89. During what phase of Meiosis do individual chromatids move to each end of the cell?: Anaphase
90. During what phase of Meiosis does crossing over occur?: Prophase 1
91. How are the resulting cells from meiosis different from those from mito- sis?: Meiosis: 4 cells,
reproductive cells, haploid cells Mitosis: 2 cells, body cells, diploid cells
92. Describe the genetic contents of the cells resulting from Mitosis.: 2 pair of homologous
chromosomes, diploid at end, chromosomes same
93. Describe the genetic contents of the cells resulting from Meiosis.: starts with diploid
reproductive cells, haploid at end, chromosomes different from crossing over
94. What are all of the stages of cell cycle in Mitosis?: G1, S, G2, Mitosis (Prophase,
Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase), Cytokinesis
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95. What happens in Prophase of Mitosis?: DNA duplicates, spindle fibers ap- pear, nucleolous
and nuclear membrane disappear
96. What happens in Metaphase of Mitosis?: chromatids line up along the equa- tor, spindle fibers
stretch from one end to another, centromere attaches to one spindle fiber
97. What happens in Anaphase of Mitosis?: centrioles pull on spindle fibers, chromosomes split
into two equal parts, chromosomes moved by centriole action, chromosomes stop moving at end
98. What happens in Telophase of Mitosis?: nucleoplasm pinches off, chromo- somes migrate to
opposite sides of the cell, a nuclear envelope forms around each chromosome, nucleolous shows up, completely pinch off and you have two separate nucleus
99. What does one nucleotide consist of?: dioxyribose sugar, phosphate and bases
100. What are the monomers of DNA?: nucleotides
101. What part of DNA would be the rungs? the sides?: rungs - base sides -
dioxyribose sugars and phosphates
102. How are two strands of DNA held together?: hydrogen bonds
103. Describe the process of replication. What enzymes are involved?: (occurs right be cell
divides to copy DNA) Helicase breaks H bonds between bases, two parents strands separate exposing base pairs, nucleotides migrate to unzipped DNA, DNA Polymerase catalyzes complimentary joining of bases pairs, new H bonds hold them together. Other side of SNA has complimentary bases that join after DNA Polymerase reaches end of DNA strand, new double helices are half parent and half new with the same DNA sequence
104. What is actually occuring when DNA is "unzipped"?: helicase breaks hy- drogen bonds
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119. Define: trait: a genetically determined variant of a characteristic
120. Define: purebred: from parents that are both homozygous for a trait
121. Define: F1 generation: the/ first generation of offspring obtained from an
experimental cross of two organisms
122. Who was Gregor Mendel?: he observed pea plants and came up with the ideas of
dominant vs. recessive, law of segregation and law of independant assort- ment
123. What does the Principle of Dominance state?: when there are two alleles for a trait
stronger ones mask or hide the weaker trait (which is not expressed)
124. What does the Law of Independent Assortment state?: traits for domiant factors don't
always appear together
125. How is DNA different from RNA: DNA: double, stranded, deoxyribose sugar, in nucleus,
thymine bonds with adenine RNA: single, stranded, ribose sugar, only mRNA in nucleus (tRNA and rRNA in cytoplasm), uracil bonds with adenine, mRNA built off of DNA
126. What is the function of mRNA?: is transcribed by DNA and swims to ribo- some to
direct protein synthesis, contains codons for amino acids
127. What is the function of tRNA?: carries amino acids that are released when tRNA's anti-
codons are complimentary with mRNA's codons
128. What is the function of rRNA?: builds ribosome, helps direct protein sythesis
129. What are the two processes involved in protein synthesis?: transcription and translation
130. Describe the process of transcription, its four steps and the enzyme(s) involved.: 1) RNA
polymerase binds to DNA at the promoter, to start with the TAC coding of DNA
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2) DNA strand then unwinds and exposes its DNA template strand
3) Template DNA serves as a template as new RNA nucleotides are joined together and bind to
ribose-phosphate strand
4) RNA polymerase reaches termination signal, RNA polymerase then releases mRNA which
swims out of nucleus
131. Why does transcription happen in the nucleus?: DNA does not leave the nucleus ever
132. Where does translation take place?: at the ribosome in the cytoplasm
133. BAT use the amino acid chart to identify amino acids from what strand of nucleic acid?:
mRNA
134. What anti-codons would match up with the following codons: AGU ACA UGC
UAA GCG: UCA UGU ACG AUU CGC
135. What three letters always start translation (DNA and mRNA)?: DNA - TAC mRNA - AUG
136. What amino acid always starts translation and is found with the mRNA coding of AUG?:
methiomine
137. What is the relationship between a codon and an anti-codon?: They are complimentary
to each other therefore- match up
138. Describe the process of translation.: 1) mRNA reaches ribosome at junction between two
subunits
2) amino acids are brought to ribosome
3) tRNA has anti-codons that move close to codons of mRNA
4) release of amino acid will only happen if compliment between codon and anti-codon
5) ribosome will then build peptide bond between amino acids until reaches a stop codon
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152. What is a mutaion?: any change in base sequences
153. Are mutations helpful or harmful?: they can be helpful or harmful but mainly neither
154. What is nondisjunction?: failure of tetrads to separate in meiosis so the organisms end
up with an extra chomosome; instead of having a homologous pair they have a trisomy
155. What is an example of a disorder caused by nondisjunction and where is the trisomy
located?: down syndrome with a trisomy at pair #
156. What is a pedigree? and how is it useful?: shows inheritance patterns in families
157. BAT make pedigrees: n/a
158. How can you tell if a pedigree is autosomal recessive?: there are half shaded males
and females
159. How can you tell if a pedigree is autosomal dominant?: there are no half shaded males
or females
160. How can you tell if a pedigree is sex-linked recessive?: only females can be half shaded
161. What are the three alleles for blood type and which ones are dominant/re- cessive?: A and
B are dominant O is recessive
162. What are the six genotypes for blood type?: AA, AO, BB, BO, AB, OO
163. What is special about the relationship of the two alleles in AB blood?: they are codominant
164. Is it possible for a man with A blood and a woman with B blood to have a child with O
blood?: yes, if they are both heterozygous
165. A woman with type O blood and a man with type AB blood are expecting. What are the
possible blood types of the child?: AO or BO
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166. What are four examples of sex-linked diseases in humans?: muscular dystrophy,
hemophilia, color blindness and baldness
167. Why is colorblindness more common in males than females?: males only need one gene,
where females need two, since colorblindness is sex-linked reces- sive and the Y chromosome carries no genes
168. Why is the genotype of the father unimportant when investigating
sex-linked traits inherited by male offspring?: males ALWAYS receive their X chromosome from their mother
169. What is a restriction enzyme?: an enzyme that genetic engineers use to cut a specific
sequence of DNA
170. How does a restriction enzyme work?: they recognize specific VNTRs
171. What is a plasmid?: bacterial circle of DNA that is easy to cut and use for accepting
DNA from another source
172. In what type of genetic engineering are plasmids used?: in recombinant DNA
experiements such as insulin production
173. What are VNTRs?: variable number tandem repeats; sequences of repeating patterns
around non-coding geners, not part of active genes; example: TAT CAT TAT CAT TAT CAT TAT CAT
174. How are VNTRs helpful in DNA fingerprinting?: they are not the same in any two people
(unless you have identical twins) so they produce unique banding patterns in electrophoresis
175. List the steps of SNA Fingerprinting/Identification.: 1) Isolate DNA
2) Make copies using PCR
3) Sort DNA by size using gel electrophoresis
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184. Define: Fitness: the measure of individual's hereditary contribution to the next
generation
185. According to Darwin's theorty of natural selection, indiviuals who survive are the ones
whos are...: best adapted to their environment
186. Define: adaptation: the process which a population becomes better suited to the
environment
187. How might vestigial organ provide clues to an animal's evolutionary history?:
biologoist compare those to analyze how close/distant relations are
188. What are homologou structures?: originated from common ancestors
189. What are analogous structures?: an atomoical structure in two very different organism
with no common ancestort but serve a similar function today
190. Define: gene pool: total genetic information in a breeding population
191. Define: evolution: species gradually change over time to be best adapted to their
environment, desccent with modification
192. Define: natural selection: process by which individuals are better suited to survive
environment and reproduce
193. Define: survival of the fittest: another way to say natural selection
194. Define: coevolution: two or more organisms that have evolved adaptations due to
each other's influence
195. Define: convergent evolution: two different organisms without a common ancestor
have developed similar features
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196. Define: divergent evolution: two organisms with a common ancestor that have
adapted and evolved to be very different
197. What are the three sources of genetic variation?: gene shuffling in meiosis,
recombination from crossing over and mutations
198. Describe geographic isolation.: canyons, mountains, trenches, bodies of water that
SEPARATE species
199. Describe behavioral isolation.: different bird songs, different dances of rough grouse
compares to praire chicken, different rates of flowers blooming cause species purity and no crossing of gametes
200. Describe temporal isolation.: seasonal or weather changes
201. What are the six concepts or features biologist use as evidence for evolution:
Biogeography, anatomy, embyology, fossil record, biological molecules and modern occurances
202. Define: genetic equilibrium: no evolution
203. What are the five steps in the ETC of cellular respiration?: oxidation, pass electrons,
protons pumped, ATP synthase, reduction
204. What are the five steps during the light reactions of photosynthesis?: -
jump, reduction, water split, photosystem II, NADPH
