Download ICD10CPT Coding Ultimate Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Question 1. Which suffix indicates a surgical removal of a body part? A) - itis B) - ectomy C) - oma D) - algia Answer: B Explanation: The suffix “-ectomy” denotes excision or surgical removal (e.g., appendectomy). Question 2. In the OGCR, “Excludes1” means: A) The code is not to be used under any circumstance. B) The code is optional if a more specific code exists. C) The code should be used only after a “code first” rule. D) The code can be reported in conjunction with any other code. Answer: A Explanation: “Excludes1” indicates that the code cannot be used together with the code it excludes; they are mutually exclusive. Question 3. The ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code for a first‑time non‑ST elevation myocardial infarction is: A) I21. B) I21. C) I22. D) I24. Answer: A Explanation: I21.01 specifies ST elevation MI of the anterior wall, first episode. Non‑ST elevation MI is coded I21.4, but the question asked for first‑time MI; the anterior location is an example. Question 4. Which body system includes the hippocampus? A) Cardiovascular B) Nervous
C) Musculoskeletal D) Endocrine Answer: B Explanation: The hippocampus is a structure within the brain, part of the central nervous system. Question 5. The CPT code for a screening colonoscopy with no polypectomy is: A) 45378 B) 45380 C) 45385 D) 45390 Answer: A Explanation: 45378 describes a colonoscopy, flexible, diagnostic, including visualization of the entire colon without removal of lesions. Question 6. Which modifier indicates a bilateral procedure performed during the same operative session? A) - 25 B) - 50 C) - 59 D) - 76 Answer: B Explanation: Modifier - 50 denotes that a procedure was performed on both sides of the body. Question 7. A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is documented. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code is most appropriate? A) N18. B) N18. C) N18. D) N18. Answer: B
B) R05.
C) H60.
D) S72.001A
Answer: A Explanation: Z00.00 denotes a general adult medical examination without abnormal findings, a common screening code. Question 12. The CPT code 99284 corresponds to which level of ED visit? A) Level 1 (minimal) B) Level 2 (moderate) C) Level 3 (high) D) Level 4 (critical) Answer: C Explanation: 99284 is for a moderate‑complexity emergency department visit (high severity). Question 13. In the musculoskeletal system, which code represents a complex repair of a scalp laceration? A) 12001 B) 13132 C) 14040 D) 15100 Answer: A Explanation: 12001 is for simple repair; complex scalp repairs fall under 13132 (complex repair of scalp, neck, etc.) – thus answer B is correct. (Correct answer: B) Question 14. The term “hyperemia” refers to: A) Decreased blood flow B) Increased blood flow C) Fluid accumulation in the interstitium D) Nerve inflammation
Answer: B Explanation: Hyperemia is an excess of blood in the vessels supplying an organ or tissue. Question 15. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM chapter includes codes for HIV disease? A) Chapter 1 – Certain infectious and parasitic diseases B) Chapter 2 – Neoplasms C) Chapter 5 – Mental, Behavioral, and Neurodevelopmental disorders D) Chapter 8 – Diseases of the endocrine system Answer: A Explanation: HIV disease is coded within Chapter 1 (A00‑B99) for infectious and parasitic diseases. Question 16. The CPT code for a transthoracic echocardiogram, complete, with Doppler study is: A) 93303 B) 93304 C) 93306 D) 93312 Answer: C Explanation: 93306 describes a complete transthoracic echocardiogram with Doppler and M‑mode. Question 17. Which modifier indicates a distinct procedural service performed on the same day? A) - 24 B) - 59 C) - 76 D) - 91 Answer: B Explanation: Modifier - 59 is used to indicate a procedure is separate and distinct from other services on the same day.
A) 92928
B) 92941
C) 92944
D) 92980
Answer: C Explanation: 92944 describes percutaneous transluminal coronary atherectomy with stent placement. Question 22. The term “myocardial infarction, type 2” refers to: A) Atherosclerotic plaque rupture B) Supply‑demand mismatch without plaque rupture C) Coronary artery dissection D) Spontaneous coronary artery embolism Answer: B Explanation: Type 2 MI is due to an imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand, not a primary coronary event. Question 23. Which of the following HCPCS modifiers indicates “bilateral procedure” for a DME item? A) - LT B) - RT C) - 50 D) - LT/RT not applicable for DME Answer: D Explanation: Modifiers – LT and – RT are for laterality of procedures, not for DME; bilateral DME is indicated by separate codes, not a modifier. Question 24. A 45‑year‑old male undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The correct CPT code is: A) 47562 B) 47564
C) 47600
D) 47610
Answer: B Explanation: 47564 is the laparoscopic removal of the gallbladder. Question 25. In ICD‑ 10 ‑CM, the seventh character “A” for injury codes indicates: A) Initial encounter B) Subsequent encounter C) Sequelae D) Unspecified encounter Answer: A Explanation: “A” denotes the initial encounter for an injury. Question 26. Which of the following is a “Z‑code” for a patient’s personal history of smoking? A) Z87. B) Z71. C) Z72. D) Z13. Answer: A Explanation: Z87.891 indicates personal history of nicotine dependence. Question 27. The CPT code 99213 is used for which type of office visit? A) New patient, level 1 B) Established patient, level 2 C) New patient, level 3 D) Established patient, level 4 Answer: B Explanation: 99213 is an established patient office visit of moderate complexity (level 2).
C) Authorization Before Notification D) Accredited Billing Notice Answer: B Explanation: ABN is the Advance Beneficiary Notice, required when a service may not be covered. Question 32. Which of the following is a “code first” rule in the endocrine chapter? A) E11.9/E11.65 – code diabetes first, then complication. B) E03.9/E03.2 – code hypothyroidism first, then goiter. C) E78.5/E78.0 – code hyperlipidemia first, then disorder. D) None of the above. Answer: A Explanation: For diabetes, the primary diabetes code must be listed before the complication code (code first). Question 33. A patient receives a blood transfusion of packed red blood cells. Which HCPCS “J” code is appropriate? A) J B) J C) J D) J Answer: B Explanation: J1720 is the code for each unit of packed red blood cells, 250 ml. Question 34. The ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code for “Unspecified viral hepatitis, acute” is: A) B19. B) B18. C) B15. D) B17. Answer: A
Explanation: B19.9 denotes unspecified viral hepatitis, acute. Question 35. In radiology, CPT 74177 represents: A) CT abdomen/pelvis with contrast B) MRI abdomen without contrast C) CT abdomen without contrast D) Ultrasound abdomen, complete Answer: A Explanation: 74177 is a CT scan of abdomen and pelvis with contrast material. Question 36. Which of the following is a “mutually exclusive” NCCI edit pair? A) 27447 (hip arthroplasty) and 27446 (hip revision) B) 99213 (office visit) and 99214 (office visit) C) 99285 (ED high complexity) and 99284 (ED moderate) D) 99291 (critical care) and 99292 (critical care) Answer: B Explanation: Two office visit codes cannot be billed for the same patient on the same day; they are mutually exclusive. Question 37. The CPT code for a percutaneous needle biopsy of the breast guided by ultrasound is: A) 19081 B) 19100 C) 19102 D) 19104 Answer: A Explanation: 19081 is for percutaneous needle biopsy of the breast, using imaging guidance. Question 38. In the circulatory system chapter, the code I10 corresponds to: A) Essential (primary) hypertension
Explanation: 99291 is for the first 30‑minute increment of critical care (often billed per hour). Question 42. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code indicates “Sepsis due to Staphylococcus aureus”? A) A41. B) A41. C) A41. D) A41. Answer: A Explanation: A41.01 specifies sepsis due to Staphylococcus aureus, methicillin‑sensitive. Question 43. The CPT code for a laparoscopic appendectomy is: A) 44950 B) 44960 C) 44970 D) 44979 Answer: B Explanation: 44960 is for laparoscopic removal of the appendix. Question 44. Which of the following is a “Z‑code” used to indicate a patient’s family history of cancer? A) Z80. B) Z85. C) Z86. D) Z71. Answer: A Explanation: Z80.0 denotes family history of malignant neoplasm of digestive organs. Question 45. A surgeon performs a complex repair of a tongue laceration. Which CPT code is appropriate?
A) 13132
B) 13137
C) 13140
D) 13145
Answer: B Explanation: 13137 is for complex repair of the tongue, oral cavity, or pharynx. Question 46. Which modifier should be appended when a service is denied because it was previously performed within the same 30‑day period? A) - 76 B) - 77 C) - 78 D) - 79 Answer: A Explanation: Modifier - 76 indicates repeat procedure or service by the same physician. Question 47. The ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code for “Acute lymphoblastic leukemia, not having achieved remission” is: A) C91. B) C91. C) C91. D) C91. Answer: A Explanation: C91.00 is for acute lymphoblastic leukemia, not in remission. Question 48. Which CPT code describes a bone density test of the lumbar spine and hip? A) 77080 B) 77081 C) 77082
Question 52. The CPT code 99284 corresponds to which MDM level? A) Straightforward B) Low complexity C) Moderate complexity D) High complexity Answer: C Explanation: 99284 is for a moderate‑complexity ED visit (MDM moderate). Question 53. Which HCPCS Level II code is used for a home infusion pump? A. K B. E C. A D. J Answer: B Explanation: E0720 denotes a home infusion pump, per day. Question 54. A patient presents with “acute on chronic renal failure.” Which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code best captures this condition? A) N18. B) N18. C) N D) N17. Answer: C Explanation: N19 is “Unspecified kidney failure,” used when acute on chronic renal failure is documented without further specification. Question 55. Which CPT code describes a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) without stent? A) 92920 B) 92924
C) 92928
D) 92944
Answer: B Explanation: 92924 is for PTCA of coronary artery(s) without stent placement. Question 56. In the nervous system chapter, the code G20 is for: A) Parkinson disease B) Multiple sclerosis C) ALS (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) D) Guillain‑Barré syndrome Answer: A Explanation: G20 designates Parkinson disease. Question 57. Which modifier is required when a service is performed under a global period but is unrelated to the original surgery? A) - 24 B) - 25 C) - 58 D) - 59 Answer: C Explanation: Modifier - 58 indicates a staged or related procedure during the global period. Question 58. The CPT code for a simple skin graft of less than 10 cm² is: A) 15100 B) 15102 C) 15120 D) 15130 Answer: A Explanation: 15100 is for a skin graft, less than 10 cm².
D) M79.
Answer: A Explanation: L04.9 denotes acute lymphadenitis, unspecified. Question 63. Which CPT code describes a complex fracture repair of the hand with bone graft? A) 26055 B) 26056 C) 26057 D) 26058 Answer: B Explanation: 26056 is for repair of complex fracture of hand with bone graft. Question 64. In compliance, “upcoding” refers to: A) Assigning a code for a service not performed. B) Using a higher‑priced code than justified. C) Submitting a claim for a service already denied. D) Billing for a service that is bundled. Answer: B Explanation: Upcoding is the practice of using a more expensive code than the service provided. Question 65. The CPT code for a therapeutic ultrasound session of 15 minutes is: A) 97010 B) 97012 C) 97014 D) 97016 Answer: A Explanation: 97010 is for therapeutic ultrasound, 1‑ 5 minutes; the time is captured by the number of units.
Question 66. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code is used for “Essential (primary) hypertension with heart failure”? A) I11. B) I11. C) I13. D) I13. Answer: A Explanation: I11.0 denotes hypertensive heart disease with (congestive) heart failure. Question 67. The CPT code 99215 denotes which level of office visit? A) Level 3 (moderate) B) Level 4 (high) C) Level 5 (high) D) Level 2 (low) Answer: C Explanation: 99215 is the highest level (level 5) office visit for established patients. Question 68. Which modifier indicates a service was performed by a different provider than the one who rendered the original E/M service on the same day? A) - 24 B) - 57 C) - 58 D) - 59 Answer: A Explanation: Modifier - 24 is used when an unrelated E/M service is performed by a different provider on the same day. Question 69. The ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code for “Unspecified fracture of the clavicle, initial encounter for closed fracture” is: A) S42.001A
