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What is the minimum number of hours for basic training?
20 hours
Who provides the basic training for registered employees?
A qualified instructor
What subjects are covered in the basic training?
Law, liability, use of force, communication, offenses, criminal justice, fire safety, report writing, observation, customer service, civil rights, public relations, terrorism
Who needs to complete the basic training?
Registered employees of a private security contractor agency
What additional training is required for registered employees providing guarding or security functions?
8 hours of site-specific training within 6 months of employment
How often do registered employees need to complete refresher training?
Every calendar year
Who is responsible for certifying the completion of training?
The employer
What happens if the employer fails to provide the training documentation?
Disciplinary action can be taken
What is a personal training log?
A record of training hours earned by private security contractors
What is the purpose of annual training for private security contractors?
To enhance professional skills and knowledge
Who is responsible for maintaining a personal training log?
The private security contractor
What is the role of the Department in training requirements?
Administering and enforcing the training regulations
What is the intent of the training requirements?
To accommodate diverse professional practices
How many hours of annual training are required for private security contractors?
Minimum 4 hours
When do the annual training requirements apply?
The calendar year following the issuance of the private security contractor license
What is the purpose of the Preamble in the Constitution?
To identify the basic intent of the Constitution
How many articles are there in the Constitution?
There are seven articles in the Constitution
What is the role of the Legislative Branch?
The Legislative Branch is responsible for enacting laws
What are the two units that make up Congress?
The two units that make up Congress are the House of Representatives and the Senate
What are the qualifications to be a member of the House of Representatives?
A member of the House of Representatives must be at least 25 years old, a U.S. citizen for 7 years, and live within the state they represent
Who is the leader of the House of Representatives?
The leader of the House of Representatives is the Speaker of the House
How many seats does each state have in the Senate?
Each state has two seats in the Senate
What are the qualifications to be a member of the Senate?
A member of the Senate must be at least 30 years old, a U.S. citizen for 9 years, and live within the state they represent
Who is the leader of the Senate?
The leader of the Senate is the Vice President of the U.S. or the President pro tempore
What are the powers of Congress?
Conflicting rights
Do security officers have greater rights or powers than other citizens?
No
What is the distinction between detain and arrest?
Detain refers to shoplifting statutes, not arrest
What is the exclusionary rule?
Evidence obtained in violation of the fourth amendment is excluded from court proceedings
What force are defensive property security officers empowered to use?
The same force as their employers
When does intentional tort occur?
When the person who committed the act could foresee the resulting damages
What is the duty of security industry in protecting from third-party crime?
Legally responsible for protection
What is vicarious liability?
Principal is responsible for the actions of the agent
What is the first step in risk analysis?
Recognizing the threats
What is a vulnerability analysis?
Physical examination of premises and inspection of operational systems
What is the purpose of determining the probability of loss?
To prioritize security problems based on impact
What are the alternatives for risk management?
Avoidance, reduction, spreading, transfer
What should be considered when using insurance as a risk management strategy?
Insurance is not a substitute for a comprehensive security program
What does fidelity coverage insurance provide?
Payment for losses due to employee acts of dishonesty
What does surety coverage insurance provide?
Protection for failure to fulfill contractual obligation
What is the purpose of a physical security plan?
To protect the grounds, perimeter, interior, and contents
What are the specifications for effective chain-link fencing?
Nine gauge or heavier wire, barbed salvage top and bottom, at least 6 feet tall
What are the specifications for masonry walls?
At least 7 feet high with a top guard of three or four strands of barbed wire
What should be considered when placing personal gates?
Width to maintain control of personnel
What is the purpose of a clear zone?
To make any approach to the barrier immediately visible
What are the considerations for effective security lighting?
Minimum illumination, avoiding glare, overlapping illumination, easy maintenance and service
What are the different types of lighting?
Incandescent, fluorescent, mercury vapor, metal halide, sodium vapor, quartz, high-pressure sodium
What should be considered when placing surveillance cameras?
Purpose of use, effect of sun, location, lighting, coordination with lighting plan
What are the different types of alarm devices?
Electro mechanical devices, pressure devices, photoelectric devices, motion detection alarms, ultrasonic motion detectors, capacitance alarms, sonic alarm systems, vibration detectors
What is the role of security in contingency planning?
Developing emergency evacuation plans and responding to crises
What are the components of the fire triangle?
Heat, fuel, and oxygen
What are the elements of the fraud triangle?
Incentive, attitude, opportunity
It is a continuing concern for managers.
What is the delicate consideration in the pursuit of security?
Conflicting rights in contact with others.
Do security officers have greater rights or powers than other citizens?
No, they have the same rights and powers as every other citizen.
What is the distinction between detainment and arrest?
Arrest involves delivering the suspect to authorities and exercising strict physical control, while detainment is a temporary delay.
What is the exclusionary rule?
Any evidence obtained by a public law enforcement agency in violation of the Fourth Amendment is excluded from court proceedings.
What force are defensive property security officers empowered to use?
The same force as their employers.
What is intentional tort?
When the person could foresee that their action would cause damages.
Why is duty to protect from third-party crime important in the security industry?
Courts hold the industry legally responsible for protecting against third-party crime.
What is vicarious liability?
When one party is responsible for the actions of another party.
What is the first step in risk analysis?
Identifying the threats and vulnerabilities.
What is a security survey?
An exhaustive examination of premises and operational systems.
What aspects of the company should the security manager consider as potential security problems?
Perimeter, parking lot, adjacent building windows and rooftops, roof, issuance of main entrance keys, shared occupancy, areas containing valuables, off-hours winter facility, keys and key control, fire, computer access, video surveillance, computer systems and network, landscaping.
What is the purpose of the examination in security risk analysis?
To find deviations from security standards, define loopholes and security controls, and consider means of improving efficiency without reducing security.
What is the principle of criticality used for in security risk analysis?
To measure the impact of a loss in dollars and prioritize security problems.
What are the alternatives for risk management?
Risk avoidance, risk reduction, risk spreading, and risk transfer (insurance).
Can insurance alone substitute for a comprehensive security program?
No, insurance is a valuable addition but not a substitute.
What do casualty insurance companies require before covering a potential risk?
Adequate safety and security measures.
What is fidelity coverage?
Insurance for employee acts of dishonesty.
What is surety coverage?
Protection for fulfilling contractual obligations.
What does comprehensive dishonesty destruction and disappearance coverage include?
Coverage for robbery, theft, and counterfeit goods.
What does basic insurance coverage often fail to provide?
Coverage for business interruption costs.
What is the recommended distance between a fence and a building?
No more than 2 inches.
When should windows and openings be protected by grills or screening?
When less than 18 feet from the ground or 4 feet from outside structures.
How can standard plate glass be made resistant?
Covered with a 4 to 6 mm mylar.
What are the two expected results of effective surveillance systems?
Identifiable images of criminal behavior and acting as a deterrent.
What are some questions to ask before purchasing a system?
What is the purpose of a clear zone?
To make any approach to the barrier immediately visible.
What does the Illuminating Engineering Society of North America recommend for security lighting?
A minimum of 3 foot candles.
What should lighting systems avoid?
Casting annoying or dangerous light into neighboring areas.
What should lighting systems provide?
Specified level of illumination without creating glare.
What should lighting systems be designed with?
Overlapping illumination to avoid unprotected areas in case of light failures.
What should be the location of poles in the lighting system?
Within the barrier.
What should be done with powerlines in the lighting system?
They should be buried.
What should be the security level of the switch box in the lighting system?
Secure.
What is the most common type of lighting used in homes?
Incandescent.
What type of lighting systems will soon be more difficult to purchase?
Incandescent bulbs.
What is a limitation of fluorescent bulbs for outdoor use?
Temperature sensitivity and limited value in colder climates.
What is a potential effect of fluorescent bulbs on security personnel and intruders?
Disorienting effect.
What is the start-up time for mercury vapor lights?
They take time to reach full luminance.
What is a characteristic of metal halide lamps?
Tolerance of power dips and long start-up time.
What is the purpose of sodium vapor lights?
To provide a soft yellow light that is more efficient than mercury vapor lamps.
Where are sodium vapor lights frequently found?
On highways and bridges.
What type of light do quartz lamps produce?
A bright white light that snaps on rapidly.
What are quartz lamps excellent for?
Illuminating perimeter barriers and troublesome areas.
How does high pressure sodium light compare to incandescent street lights in terms of energy usage?
It uses about 50% less energy to produce the same amount of light.
What is the lumens per watt efficiency of sodium systems compared to incandescent lighting?
Five or six times higher.
How much more light do high pressure sodium lights produce compared to the most common mercury street lights?
106% more light.
How much electricity do high pressure sodium lights use compared to mercury street lights?
About 14% less electricity.
What should be considered when locating lighting units?
They should be placed far enough inside the fence and high enough to illuminate both inside and outside the boundary.
Why is it beneficial for lighted areas to extend outside the boundary?
It allows guards to detect the approach of an intruder more readily.
How should lights be directed?
Down and away from the protected area.
What should be avoided when locating lighting units?
Throwing a glare into the eyes of the guard and creating shadow areas.
What should be achieved when identifying employees at a facility?
What are sonic alarm systems used for?
Detecting noise levels in an area.
What do vibration detectors provide?
High level of protection against attack
What can vibration detectors be adjusted for?
Sensitivity
Why are vibration detectors useful in specific applications?
Low false alarm rates
What is the traditional role of security in contingency planning?
Developing evacuation plans and responding to emergencies
What does the fire triangle consist of?
Heat, fuel, and oxygen
What is the key to fast loss reduction and extinguishment of a fire?
Early notification
What are the three elements of the fraud triangle?
Incentive, attitude, opportunity
What is the most important deterrent to internal theft?
Fear of discovery
How should employees be identified in a controlled area?
By a badge or pass
What is the most common type of seal used today?
Metal railroad boxcar seal
What is the biggest deterrent to workplace violence?
Careful hiring and screening
What are the three principal sources of loss to retailers?
External theft, internal dishonesty, and mismanagement
What is the most insidious cause of shrinkage?
Theft by a trusted associate
What is a duress alarm?
A feature of an IDA used in robbery situations.
What is a duress code?
A code assigned to authorized store personnel.
What does a duress code do?
Deactivates/activates the alarm system and sends a message to the central station.
Who is eligible to be authorized to operate eavesdropping equipment? A) any retired or active duty LEO B) a retired LEO who is certified by IL State police C) only active duty law enforcement officers D) any licensed private detective or security contractor
retired LEO who is certified by IL State police
Cash, stocks, bonds & real estate may be used as security for bail. However, stocks & bonds can't be used if accepted as bail during the previous ______ months
12
If the eyewitness refuses to sign the ID results, the lineup administrator shall note this & also sign notation True or False?
True
Prosecution for any offense not designated in Subsection (a) must begin with 3 yrs if felony or 1 1/ years if misdemeanor. True or False?
True
An eavesdropper is any person, including any _____ and any party to a private conversation, who uses eavesdropping device A) private detective B) LEO C) federally-certified communications officer D) security officer
law enforcement officer
person willfully failed to make a payment
With regard to process service, every action shall be commenced by the filing of a ______ A) summons B) complaint C) warrant D) none of the above
complaint
Grand Jury shall consist of ______ people, ______ of whom necessary for quorum A) 20/ B) 16/ C) 12/ D) none of the above
16/
A person who kills an individual without lawful justification commits A) reckless homicide B) voluntary manslaughter C) assisted suicide D) 1st degree murder
1st degree murder
A service receipt shall record all of the following except A) other person with whom the summons was left B) signature of the recipient of the summons C) defendant sex/race/age D) place/date/time when summons was left
signature of the recipient of the summons
A person commits _____ when entering a property with intent to commit a crime A) theft B) criminal trespassing C) burglary D) home invasion
burglary
A statement resulting from a custodial interrogation is presumed to be _____ unless a substantially accurate electronic recording is made A) hearsay B) materially relevant
C) admissible D) inadmissible
inadmissible
A strip search may be conducted when A) persons are of same sex as arrestee whenever possible B) written permission is obtained of watch commander or designee of agency conducting the search C) sanitary conditions are adhered to D) the arrestee consents to it
written permission is obtained of watch commander or designee of agency conducting the search
For eavesdropping, surreptitious means all of the following except A) overt/publicly B) stealth C) secrecy D) deception
overt/publicly
No one may use an electronic tracking device. This law applies to all of the following except: A) lessor/lessee B) employee operating a company vehicle C) government vehicles D) registered owner & spouse
government vehicles
Process shall be served by a sheriff, or if the sheriff is disqualified, by a _____ of some county in the state A) coroner B) judge C) treasurer D) county clerk
coroner
A search warrant cannot be executed at any time of any day or night. True or False?
False
Cyberstalking is harassing a person on _____ separate occasions using _____ communications A) 2/electronic B) 2/verbal
A) $500,000/5,
B) $5,000/$
C) 50,000/$5,
D) none of these
$500,000/5,
_____ means a sentence of conditional & revocable release under the supervision of a _____ officer A) recognizance bond B) conditional discharge C) parole D) probation
Probation
Process may be served by a licensed private detective in counties with a population of less than _____ A) 2,000, B) 3,000, C) 1,500, D) 1,000,
2,000,
A person commits _____ when he offers/agrees to confer, any benefit upon an employee without the employer's consent with intent to influence A) commercial bribery B) bribery C) official misconduct D) none of the above
commercial bribery
Each LEO shall immediately report any "officer-involved shooting" to the appropriate _____ A) nearest kin of the victim B) supervisor C) police chief D) media representative
supervisor
Crime victims shall have all of the following rights except: A) right to communicate with the prosecution B) right to petition for harsher punishment when not satisfied with the sentence
C) right to be treated with fairness and respect D) right to notification of court proceedings
right to petition for harsher punishment when not satisfied with the sentence
Which is NOT an element of robbery? A) threatening the imminent use of force B) taking property in the presence of another person C) permanently depriving another of property D) using force in the presence of another person
permanently depriving another of property
A person commits an offense when he knowingly commits any act _____ related activity A) involving indirect contact communicating with street gang B) involving direct contact communicating with street gang C) in furtherance of street gang D) none of these
in furtherance of street gang
If the court finds the defendant was subjected to interrogation in violation of Section 725 ILCS 5/103- 2.1, any statements made by the defendant during the interrogation is inadmissible except for the purposes of impeachment True or False
True
A Category I weapon includes all of the following except: A) bludgeon/metal knuckles/billy etc B) sawed-off shotgun or rifle C) handgun or other small firearm D) semiautomatic firearm or machine gun
bludgeon/metal knuckles/billy etc
Abuse of a long term care facility resident is when a person _____ causes physical or mental injury A) recklessly B) actively C) knowingly D) secretly
knowingly
Bail bondsmen from other states may not transport defendants in IL to their state: A) unless done so willingly by the defendant B) for misdemeanor offenses in their state
