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Question 1. Which OSHA Focus Four hazard is most directly addressed by installing guardrails around an open floor opening at a demolition site? A) Caught‑in/between B) Struck‑by C) Falls D) Electrocution Answer: C Explanation: Guardrails are a primary fall protection measure that prevents workers from falling through openings, directly addressing the fall hazard. Question 2. Under 29 CFR 1926 Subpart T, what is the minimum distance a demolition site must be from an occupied building when using explosive demolition methods? A) 50 ft B) 100 ft C) 150 ft D) 200 ft Answer: B Explanation: Subpart T requires a minimum 100‑foot separation for explosive demolition to protect adjacent occupied structures from blast effects. Question 3. The competent person on a demolition project must be able to perform which of the following actions? A) Issue work permits for all trades B) Conduct daily OSHA inspections and correct hazards immediately C) Approve all subcontractor invoices D) Write the project’s demolition plan Answer: B Explanation: The competent person is responsible for identifying hazards and taking corrective action, which includes daily site inspections.
Question 4. Which piece of PPE is required when workers are cutting asbestos‑containing pipe with a powered saw? A) Hard hat with face shield B) Disposable coveralls and N‑100 respirator C) Steel‑toed boots only D) Ear plugs and safety glasses Answer: B Explanation: Cutting ACM releases fibers; a disposable coverall prevents skin contamination and an N‑100 respirator provides the needed filtration efficiency. Question 5. When is a personal fall arrest system (PFAS) mandatory on a demolition site? A) When work is performed above 4 ft B) When work is performed above 6 ft C) Only when using scaffolding D) Only when using ladders Answer: B Explanation: OSHA requires PFAS for any work performed at heights of 6 ft or more in construction, including demolition. Question 6. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Hazard Communication (HazCom) program on a demolition site? A) To document daily weather conditions B) To inform workers about the hazards of chemicals and proper handling procedures C) To schedule equipment maintenance D) To track project expenses Answer: B Explanation: HazCom ensures workers receive information on hazardous chemicals through labels, SDSs, and training. Question 7. In a Lockout/Tagout (LOTO) situation, which step must be performed first?
B) Confirmation that the scaffold is level and all components are free of damage C) Checking the brand of the scaffold manufacturer D) Measuring the distance to the nearest utility pole Answer: B Explanation: Scaffolds must be inspected for levelness, structural integrity, and damage before each shift. Question 11. What is the primary purpose of housekeeping on a demolition site? A) To improve aesthetic appearance for the public B) To reduce slip, trip, and fire hazards by keeping the work area clean and organized C) To increase the speed of demolition activities D) To comply with local zoning codes Answer: B Explanation: Good housekeeping minimizes hazards such as slips, trips, and fire risks, contributing to overall site safety. Question 12. During a pre‑demolition engineering survey, which structural element is most critical to evaluate for potential “progressive collapse”? A) Interior non‑load‑bearing walls B) Roof decking C) Primary load‑bearing columns and beams D) Exterior cladding material Answer: C Explanation: Primary load‑bearing members are essential for overall stability; failure can trigger progressive collapse. Question 13. Which utility must be verified as completely de‑energized and locked out before interior demolition begins? A) Telephone lines B) Natural gas service
C) Cable TV D) Internet broadband Answer: B Explanation: Natural gas poses an explosion risk; it must be shut off, capped, and locked out before demolition work proceeds. Question 14. The Indianapolis Department of Business and Neighborhood Services (BNS) requires which document before issuing a demolition permit? A) A site‑specific traffic control plan B) A demolition waste recycling plan C) A detailed demolition plan outlining methods, sequence, and safety controls D) A list of all subcontractors’ insurance certificates Answer: C Explanation: BNS requires a comprehensive demolition plan that details the methods, sequence, and safety measures. Question 15. When planning traffic control for a demolition site located on a busy arterial road, which of the following is the most appropriate first step? A) Install temporary streetlights B) Develop a site‑specific traffic control plan approved by the local Department of Transportation C) Place signage indicating “Construction Zone” D) Provide workers with reflective vests Answer: B Explanation: A traffic control plan approved by the DOT ensures safe vehicle and pedestrian movement around the demolition site. Question 16. Which EPA regulation governs the handling and disposal of asbestos during demolition? A) Clean Air Act Section 112 (NESHAP) B) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) Subtitle C C) Safe Drinking Water Act
Answer: C Explanation: Fluorescent lamps are classified as universal waste due to their mercury content and require specific handling and disposal procedures. Question 20. When a suspect meth‑lab residue is discovered on a demolition site, the contractor must first: A) Continue demolition and clean the area later B) Notify the local fire department and hazardous materials team for proper assessment and remediation C) Use a pressure washer to wash away the residue D) Dispose of the contaminated soil in a regular landfill Answer: B Explanation: Meth‑lab residues are hazardous; the proper response is to involve emergency responders and qualified hazardous‑materials professionals. Question 21. A Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan (SWP3) is required for demolition projects that: A) Generate more than 100 gal of wastewater per day B) Disturb more than one acre of land or are within 200 ft of a waterbody C) Use only hand tools D) Are located in an industrial zone Answer: B Explanation: SWP3 is required when land disturbance exceeds one acre or when the site is near a waterbody, to prevent storm‑water contamination. Question 22. Which dust control method is most effective for reducing airborne silica during concrete demolition? A) Using a leaf blower to clear debris B) Wetting the concrete surface before and during demolition C) Applying a chemical dust suppressant that evaporates quickly D) Working only on windy days
Answer: B Explanation: Wet methods suppress dust at the source, significantly reducing silica aerosol generation. Question 23. In mechanical demolition, which equipment is best suited for removing large concrete slabs in a controlled manner? A) Hydraulic breaker attached to an excavator B) Hand sledgehammer C) Pneumatic jackhammer D) Wrecking ball Answer: A Explanation: A hydraulic breaker provides precise, controlled impact forces ideal for breaking large concrete slabs safely. Question 24. Selective interior demolition primarily aims to: A) Collapse the entire building quickly B) Remove only specific interior components while preserving the building envelope and structural integrity C) Recycle all interior finishes D) Reduce the need for personal protective equipment Answer: B Explanation: Selective interior demolition targets specific non‑structural elements, keeping the exterior and load‑bearing components intact. Question 25. Deconstruction differs from conventional demolition because: A) It uses only hand tools B) It removes the building in reverse order of construction to maximize material reuse and recycling C) It always requires explosives D) It is performed only on wooden structures Answer: B
Explanation: Removing a beam alters the load path, potentially placing adjacent columns in tension, compression, or a combination. Question 29. Which waste category must be placed in a separate, clearly labeled container on a demolition site? A) Concrete debris B) Asbestos waste C) Wood scrap D) Cardboard boxes Answer: B Explanation: Asbestos waste is hazardous and must be segregated, labeled, and disposed of according to regulatory requirements. Question 30. A demolition contract requires the contractor to provide a performance bond. The primary purpose of this bond is to: A) Guarantee timely payment of subcontractors B) Ensure the contractor completes the demolition work according to the contract specifications and pays for any damages caused by non‑performance C) Cover workers’ compensation claims D) Provide insurance for equipment loss Answer: B Explanation: A performance bond protects the owner by ensuring the contractor fulfills contractual obligations and covers damages from failure. Question 31. Which OSHA standard specifically addresses “Caught‑in/between” hazards on demolition sites? A) 29 CFR 1926. B) 29 CFR 1926. C) 29 CFR 1926. D) 29 CFR 1926. Answer: C
Explanation: Subpart M (29 CFR 1926.703) deals with “Caught‑in/between” hazards, including those common in demolition. Question 32. The minimum height at which guardrails must be installed around an open edge on a demolition site is: A) 30 in B) 36 in C) 42 in D) 48 in Answer: C Explanation: OSHA requires guardrails to be 42 ± 3 in high to protect workers from falls. Question 33. Which of the following best describes “progressive collapse” in the context of demolition? A) The gradual removal of interior finishes B) A sudden failure of a structural component that leads to the failure of adjoining components, potentially causing a total building collapse C) The step‑by‑step dismantling of a building in reverse order D) The controlled implosion of a building using explosives Answer: B Explanation: Progressive collapse occurs when the loss of one element triggers a chain reaction, compromising overall structural stability. Question 34. When a demolition project involves the removal of lead‑based paint, which of the following controls is mandatory? A) Using a high‑speed rotary brush without any respiratory protection B) Encapsulation of the paint and removal using wet methods with appropriate respiratory protection (e.g., N‑100) C) Spraying the surface with water after removal D) Ignoring the lead content if the building is older than 50 years Answer: B
Explanation: A 1:1 slope is impractical for a 5‑ft deep trench; OSHA requires a maximum 1:1 slope only for shallow excavations (up to 4 ft). Deeper trenches need boxes, shields, or engineered shoring. Question 38. Which of the following best defines a “controlled collapse” demolition method? A) Using hand tools only to dismantle a structure B) Sequential removal of structural components to maintain stability until the final collapse is engineered and executed safely C) Imploding a building without any prior structural analysis D) Removing only interior finishes while leaving the exterior intact Answer: B Explanation: Controlled collapse involves a planned sequence that maintains stability until the engineered collapse point is reached. Question 39. When a demolition contractor discovers unknown underground utilities during excavation, the correct immediate action is to: A) Continue digging to avoid schedule delays B) Stop work, notify the site supervisor, and contact the utility locating service to identify and mark the utilities C) Use a metal detector to locate the utilities yourself D) Cover the utilities with soil and proceed Answer: B Explanation: Unknown utilities pose serious hazards; work must stop and qualified personnel must be notified to locate and mark them safely. Question 40. Which of the following statements about the use of “wet methods” for dust suppression is true? A) Wet methods are only effective on dry, dusty sites B) Wet methods must be applied continuously during demolition activities that generate dust C) Wet methods eliminate the need for respiratory protection D) Wet methods are prohibited near electrical equipment Answer: B
Explanation: Continuous application of water or other suppressants keeps dust particles from becoming airborne during demolition. Question 41. Under Indiana law, a demolition contractor must obtain a wrecking license from which agency? A) Indiana Department of Transportation (INDOT) B) Indiana Professional Licensing Agency (IPLA) C) Indiana Department of Workforce Development (DWD) D) Indiana Department of Environmental Management (IDEM) Answer: B Explanation: The IPLA issues wrecking licenses, ensuring contractors meet state qualifications for demolition work. Question 42. Which of the following is a required element of a demolition site’s emergency action plan (EAP)? A) A list of all subcontractors’ phone numbers only B) Detailed evacuation routes, designated assembly points, and procedures for reporting emergencies C) The daily lunch menu for workers D) A schedule of equipment deliveries Answer: B Explanation: An EAP must include clear evacuation routes, assembly points, and reporting procedures to ensure rapid response during emergencies. Question 43. A demolition project includes removal of PCB‑containing electrical transformers. Which regulation governs the disposal of these items? A) Clean Air Act B) Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) PCB regulations C) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) Subtitle D D) Safe Drinking Water Act Answer: B
Explanation: Proper cable strength and load sequencing ensure the wall fails as intended, preventing sudden, uncontrolled collapse. Question 47. Which of the following statements about “universal waste” is correct? A) It can be disposed of in any municipal landfill without special handling B) It includes items such as batteries, mercury‑containing equipment, and fluorescent lamps, and must be managed under specific EPA regulations C) It is only generated during construction, not demolition D) It is exempt from all state hazardous waste laws Answer: B Explanation: Universal waste is a category of hazardous waste with streamlined management requirements, including batteries, mercury devices, and lamps. Question 48. In the event of a fire on a demolition site, which type of fire extinguisher is most appropriate for a Class B (flammable liquid) fire caused by gasoline stored for equipment? A) Class A water extinguisher B) Class B CO₂ extinguisher C) Class C dry chemical extinguisher D) Class K kitchen fire extinguisher Answer: B Explanation: Class B extinguishers (CO₂ or foam) are designed for flammable liquid fires. Question 49. Which of the following is the best practice for securing a demolition site’s perimeter to protect the public? A) Posting a single “Caution” sign at the entrance B) Installing a fenced barrier with locked gates, warning signs, and a 24‑hour security patrol C) Using cones only during working hours D) Relying on workers to verbally warn passersby Answer: B Explanation: A secure fence with locked gates, signage, and security patrols provides comprehensive protection against unauthorized entry.
Question 50. When a demolition contractor must remove a roof that contains asbestos shingles, the most appropriate removal method is: A) Dry scraping the shingles and bagging them for disposal B) Wetting the shingles and using a HEPA‑vacuum system to capture fibers while removing them in sections C) Burning the shingles on site D) Ignoring the asbestos because it is on the exterior Answer: B Explanation: Wet methods and HEPA vacuum capture minimize fiber release; dry removal would aerosolize asbestos. Question 51. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a “demolition zone” on a site plan? A) An area where workers can take breaks B) The defined space where demolition activities will occur, including fall‑zone boundaries and protected areas for the public C) A storage area for demolition equipment only D) A location for the site office Answer: B Explanation: The demolition zone outlines the work area, fall zones, and public protection boundaries. Question 52. Under OSHA, which of the following is required when a worker is required to work on a ladder that is 8 ft above a lower level? A) No fall protection is needed because the ladder is portable B) The worker must use a personal fall arrest system or a ladder‑specific fall‑arrest device C) The worker can use a safety harness attached to the ladder rung D) The ladder must be painted bright orange Answer: B Explanation: OSHA requires fall protection for ladder work above 6 ft unless the ladder is tied off and a fall‑arrest system is used.
Question 56. Which of the following best describes the “competent person” requirement for trench safety under OSHA? A) Any worker who has been on the job for more than one year B) A person capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the trench and has the authority to take corrective action C) The site foreman only D) The owner of the demolition company Answer: B Explanation: OSHA defines a competent person as one who can recognize hazards and has authority to correct them. Question 57. Which of the following is a required label element for a container of asbestos waste? A) The name of the contractor’s owner B) “Asbestos Waste – Do Not Open – EPA Regulated” with the appropriate hazard symbols C) The date the waste was generated only D) The color of the waste material Answer: B Explanation: Asbestos waste containers must be clearly labeled with hazard warnings and regulatory statements. Question 58. When planning the demolition of a building that contains a historic façade that must be preserved, the demolition method most likely to be used is: A) Implosion B) Mechanical demolition with excavators C) Selective demolition and careful façade removal using hand tools and crane support D) Use of a wrecking ball Answer: C Explanation: Preserving a historic façade requires selective demolition and careful removal techniques to avoid damage. Question 59. Which of the following is the correct order of steps for a proper LOTO procedure?
A) Notify, isolate, lock, verify, release B. Isolate, notify, lock, verify, release C. Lock, isolate, notify, verify, release D. Isolate, lock, verify, notify, release Answer: B Explanation: The correct LOTO sequence is to isolate the energy source, notify affected employees, apply locks/tags, verify de‑energization, and only release after work is complete. Question 60. Which of the following is a key indicator that a demolition site’s dust control plan is ineffective? A) Workers wearing safety glasses B) Visible dust clouds extending beyond the site perimeter during cutting operations C) The presence of a fire watch D) A posted SWPPP sign Answer: B Explanation: Visible dust clouds indicate that suppression measures are insufficient. Question 61. Under the Indianapolis Municipal Code, demolition activities that generate more than 10 dB of noise above the ambient level must: A) Stop work after 6 p.m. B) Obtain a noise variance permit and implement noise‑mitigation measures such as barriers or limited operating hours C) Use only hand tools D) Provide earplugs to all workers only Answer: B Explanation: The municipal code requires a noise variance and mitigation when demolition noise exceeds permissible limits. Question 62. Which of the following best describes a “controlled demolition” sequence for a multi‑story building? A) Removing the roof first, then the lower floors, while continuously monitoring structural stability
