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CFII Checkride Oral Exam
When do you NOT do a procedure turn? - correct answer ✔✔S- straight in H- hold on lieu of PT A- Arc R- Radar Vectors P- NoPT T- Timed approach from a hold fix T- teardrop course reversal What types of icing should you look out for? - correct answer ✔✔Structural Induction Instrument What two conditions must be present for structural ice to form? - correct answer ✔✔1. Visible moisture
- Aircraft surface temperature below freezing What are the three kinds of structural icing & how do they form? - correct answer ✔✔1. Clear (most dangerous) - forms when large supercooled drops freeze slowly, -10° to 0° C, smooth
- Rime - forms when small supercooled drops freeze quickly, -10°C to -20°C, rough & opaque
- Mixed - clear & rime form simultaneously Types of fog & how they form - correct answer ✔✔-Advection: wind pushes warm, moist air over colder land/water. -Radiation: calm, clear nights when ground cools rapidly releasing ground radiation -Upslope: Moist, stable air being cooled as it's blown upslope.
-Steam: cold, dry air moves over relatively warm water. If you loose coms what do you do? - correct answer ✔✔Trouble shoot first - stay predictable legally you fly to your clearance limit but can implement 91.3 for emergency 7600 ALTITUDE Highest of M inimum IFR altitude (MEA or MOCA) E xpected A ssigned ROUTE A ssigned V ectors E xpected F iled Types of precision approaches - correct answer ✔✔1. ILS Instrument landing system
- PAR precision approach radar
- MLS microwave landing system Types of Non-precision approaches - correct answer ✔✔1. VOR
- GPS
- RNAV / LNAV / LPV
- LOC
- NDB
D - deviation - magnetic disturbances within the airplane M - magnetic dip as you approach the magnetic poles it points towards the ground O - oscillation - occurs when it bounces within itself N - UNOS undershoot north overshoot south A - ANDS accelerate north decelerate south What is the difference between a ODP and SID? - correct answer ✔✔ODP - Obstacle Departure Procedure
- only obstacle clearance
- textual or graphically SID - Standard Instrument Departure
- obstacle clearance + reduces pilot & controller workload by simplifying ATC clearances and comms
- always graphically What are three assumptions about departure procedures? - correct answer ✔✔1. Airplane crossed end of runways at least 35' AGL
- Reaches 400 AGL before turning
- Climbs at least 200fpnm (GS/60) x FPNM = FPM Pilots are encouraged to file a DP at night during marginal VMC or IMC Minimum equipment for IFR flight? 91.205 - correct answer ✔✔———DAY A - Altimeter T - Tachometer O - Oil pressure gauge M - Manifold pressure gauge A - Airspeed indicator T - temperature gauge (* liquid cooled engine)
O - Oil temperature indicator F - Fuel quantity gauge L - Landing gear position lights (* retractable gear) A - Anti collision lights (* certified after March '96) M - Magnetic direction indicator E - ELT (91.207) S - Seat belt / Shoulder harness G - Generator/altenator R - Radios (2 way & nav equip suitable for route) A - Altimeter (baro sensing) B - Ball (slip-skid indicator) C - Clock (hrs, mins, secs w/ digital or sweep) A - Attitude indicator R - Rate of turn indicator D - Directional gyro (heading indicator) DME above FL ———NIGHT TIME all above equipment plus F - Fuses / circuit breakers L - Landing light (for hire) A - Anti collision P - Position lights (nav lights) S - Source of electrical power How can you check a VOR and with what error? - correct answer ✔✔1. VOT +-4°
- Repair Station +-4°
- VOR ground checkpoint +-4°
Inner Marker - between MM and threshold. Indicates point we are glide slope meets the DH on a Cat II ILS approach. WHITE... What is the approach light system ALS? - correct answer ✔✔Provides basic visible means to transition between instrument guided flight into a visual approach. What is the difference between GPS CDI deflection and VOR CDI deflection? - correct answer ✔✔GPS CDI deflection shows distance off course in miles while VOR CDI reflection shows angular distance off course in degrees When is an instrument rating required? - correct answer ✔✔When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather less than VFR Class A Carrying passengers for compensation/hire on XC flights over 50NM or at night Special VFR between sunset and sunrise What must you do for instrument currency? - correct answer ✔✔66HITS 6 - within preceding six months 6 - six instrument approaches H - holding procedures I - intercepting and T - tracking courses through the use of navigational S - Systems How does the G1000 get its pitot-static information? - correct answer ✔✔The pitot mast measures differential pressure from ram and static air. The ADC processes this information from the pitot-static system along with the OAT probe info to display the Altimiter, ASI, VSI on the PFD. AHRS Failure - correct answer ✔✔1. Loss of data accompanied by a red X and yellow alert messages occurs over: Sky/Ground, Attitude, Rate of Turn, Heading
- PFD continues to display airspeed, altitude, vertical speed, compass rose and ground track.
- Precision and Non precision approaches can be accomplished using standby instruments ADC Failure - correct answer ✔✔1. Loss of data accompanied by a red X and yellow alert messages occurs over: Airspeed, Altitude, Vertical Speed, TAS, OAT
- Wind Calculation Unavailable How does the AHRS system work - correct answer ✔✔Attitude and Heading Reference System uses 3 axis (roll-x, pitch-y, yaw-z) accelerometers and rate sensors, along with magnetic field readings from the magnetometers and GPS information from the Integrated Avionics Units, to provide aircraft attitude and heading information to the flight displays and IAUs. What is GPS? And what are the 3 components? - correct answer ✔✔Global Positioning System is a navigation system that is satellite based that determines a specific place on Earth.
- Space (satellite system)
- Control (ground station)
- User (Garmin equipment) How does GPS work? - correct answer ✔✔24 satellites in the constellation designed so that at least 5 satellites are in view at any given location. GPS receivers calculate the distance from GPS satellites. A GPS receiver uses the intersection of spheres from multiple satellites to calculate the aircraft's geographical position. Course and speed data are computed from aircraft position changes. 3 satellites - 2D (longitude & latitude) 4 satellites - 3D (longitude, latitude & altitude) 5 satellites w/ RAIM - fault detection 6 satellites w/ RAIM - fault exclusion
measured by SM How to pick up IFR clearance at non towered airport? - correct answer ✔✔On ground contact: FSS 1-800-wx-brief RCO Clearance/Approach ARTCC If you use the alternate static source what changes will you notice? - correct answer ✔✔Airspeed higher than actual Altimeter higher than actual VSI momentary climb then stable Blocked pitot tube with open drain hole - correct answer ✔✔Airspeed: Drops to ZERO Altimeter: Normal VSI: Normal Blocked pitot tube and drain hole - correct answer ✔✔Airspeed: normal until changing pitch of aircraft, then acts as altimeter Blocked static port - correct answer ✔✔Airspeed: innacurrate readings VSI: reads zero Altimeter: freezes at blockage altitude What is WAAS? - correct answer ✔✔Wide Area Augmentation System is an air navigational aid made up by a system of satellites and ground stations that provide GPS signal corrections, giving you better position accuracy. What are the benefits of WAAS? - correct answer ✔✔- use GPS as primary means of navigation
- skip RAIM check
- file GPS only airport as alternate
- GPS precision approaches (LPV)
- accurate within 3 m What is a contact approach? - correct answer ✔✔Allows visual approach without VFR conditions. Clear of clouds, 1SM vis. Must be requested by pilot and cleared by ATC. What is a VDP, and how do you calculate one if it isn't published? - correct answer ✔✔Visual Decent Point - defined point on the final approach course of a NON-precision STRAIGHT in approach at which you can descend below the MDA safely and visually. Typically at a 3° glide slope. VDP distance = MDA HAT / 300 (The smaller height above threshold # to the right of the MDA) GPS can substitute for what? - correct answer ✔✔ADF or DME How does a VOR work? - correct answer ✔✔Emits 2 signals in reference to magnetic North at the same time, the reference phase: 360º radial, and the variable phase: rotates omnidirectional 1º at a time. The VOR antenna receives the signal and the receiver compares the difference between the phases, and determines the radial that the aircraft is currently on. It then compares that to the OBS and moves the CDI accordingly. MARVELOUS VFR C500 - correct answer ✔✔Missed Approach Airspeed Change: 5% TAS/+-10kts Reaching holding fix (Report time & altitude) Vacating assigned altitude ETA changed +-2 mins (non radar)
Emergency Bus: AHRS Standby instrument PFD NAV 1 Com 1 Audio Panel Avionics Lights What does MSA guarantee? - correct answer ✔✔Minimum Safe Altitude' - 1,000 feet of clearance over all obstructions within, usually, 25 miles of the Fix/NAVAID When do you go missed with a MDA? - correct answer ✔✔Always at the Missed Approach Point (usually the runway) When can you descend below MDA/DA? - correct answer ✔✔91.
- Aircraft is in a continuous position to land using normal rate of decent & normal maneuvers
- Required flight visibility is met
- At least 1 of these visual references is met:
- ALS except you cannot descend below 100' above TDZE unless the red terminating or red side row bars are distinctly visible (ALSF1 & ALSF2)
- threshold
- threshold markings
- threshold lights
- TDZ / TDZ markings
- TDZ lights
- runway / runway markings
- runway lights
- REIL
- visual glide slope indicator What does the inverted T in a triangle on an approach plate mean - correct answer ✔✔Non-standard takeoff minimum's and/or Obstacle Departure Procedures What are the two fundamental properties of gyroscopic instruments? - correct answer ✔✔Rigidity in space: A gyroscope remains in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning. (Attitude & heading indicators) Precession: The titling or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force. (Turn indicators) Piper Archer V speeds - correct answer ✔✔Vs0 - 45 stall landing config Vs1 - 50 stall clean config Vx - 64 best angle of climb Vy - 76 best rate of climb Vfe - 102 max flap extended Va - 113 maneuvering speed Vno - 125 max structural cruise Vne - 154 never exceed How often are these weather services updated? ASOS AWOS ATIS METAR TAF - correct answer ✔✔ASOS - hourly AWOS - minutely ATIS - 55mins past hour METAR - hourly TAF - every 6hrs
difference in elev / horiz distance of descent = FPNM FPNM * (GS/60min) = fpm ie: 318 FPNM * (90/60) = 477 fpm Control and Performance Method - correct answer ✔✔Divides the cockpit panel by control instruments and performance instruments. First, set the power and attitude, then monitor the performance and make adjustments. What is an RCO? - correct answer ✔✔Remote Communications Outlets (RCO) are remote aviation band radio transceivers, established to extend the communication capabilities of FSS What is the difference between glide slope and glide path? - correct answer ✔✔Glide Slope (GS) is the vertical mode of the ILS from the ground based station. Glide Path (GP) is the aircrafts manufactured vertical guidance using the VNAV function, it is ADVISORY so minimum fix crossings should still be adhered to. Difference between LNAV, LNAV/VNAV, and LPV - correct answer ✔✔LNAV (non precision) uses GPS and/or WAAS for lateral navigation, but does not have increasing angular guidance as you approach the runway. They offer full scale 0.3NM CDI sensitivity when you're w/in 2NM of the FAF thru MAP. AIM 1-1- 17 LNAV/VNAV (non precision) uses GPS/WAAS for lateral nav, and baro-altimeter or WAAS for advisory vert guidance - be mindful of step down altitudes LPV ("precision like") utilizes WAAS only to vertically guide you down to DA. The angular guidance gets more sensitive the closer you are to the runway. MON airport - correct answer ✔✔The intent of the MON airport is to provide an approach that can be used by aircraft without ADF or DME when radar may not be available.
Ensures that an aircraft will always be within 100 NM of an airport with an instrument approach that is not dependent on GPS
