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Page |1 IRRSP PRACTICE TEST 2025] BRAND NEW ACTUAL EXAM WITH 100% VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT SOLUTIONS| GUARANTEED VALUE PACK| ACE YOUR GRADES. 1. Using a 50 Curie lridium-192 source and a 3 HVL collimator, what is the distance a radiographer must place the Restricted area boundary? a. 19 feet c. 222 feet d. 81 feet - correct answer - 127 feet 2. The primary reason over-exposures to radiography personnel occur is due to: (Answer with A, B, C, or D) a. Insufficient training in the handling and use of radiation exposure devices and x-ray generators b. Malfunctions of exposure devices and associated equipment or x-ray generators d. Survey meter malfunctions - correct answer - C Page |2 3. A Sievert is a unit of: a. Activity b. Radiation dose c. Dose rate d. Source focal size - correct answer - Radiation dose 4. During a radiographic exposure using a x-ray machine, the radiographer is required to stop the exposure. What should he do? a. Ask the RSO for assistance b. Turn the mA and kV controls back to zero c. Turn the line switch OFF d. Let the automatic timer run down to shut the generator OFF - correct answer - Turn the line switch OFF 5. The use of 4 half value layers of shielding will reduce an intensity by a factor of: a.4 b.8 d. 32 - correct answer - 16 6. A 40 Curie Iridium-192 source is approximately equal to: (1 Ci = 37 Gbq) Page |4 d. Beam limiting device, and necessary supporting structures - correct answer - D 10. The three ways of controlling x-ray machine radiation output are: a. Time, distance and voltage b. Time, distance and shielding c. Distance, shielding and sand d. Voltage, mA and time - correct answer - Voltage, mA and time 11. When operating an x-ray machine at 300 kVp, what is the average energy of x-rays produced? a. 900 keV b. 300 keV c. 100 keV d. 1.3 meV - correct answer - 100 keV 12. The term "Curie" defines: a. The exposure of a radioactive source b. The intensity of a radioactive source c. The activity of a radioactive source d. The output of a radioactive source - correct answer - The activity of a radioactive source Page |5 13. Which of the following are symptoms of an acute extremity overexposure? a. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea b. Fatigue, nausea, reddening of the skin c. Diarrhea, blistering, loss of hair d. Reddening of the skin, loss of hair, blistering - correct answer - Reddening of the skin, loss of hair, blistering 14. The reason the gamma radiation emitted from a Cobalt-60 source is more penetrating than the gamma radiation emitted from Iridium-192 is due to the: a. Higher output per Curie from the Co-60 b. Longer half life of the Co-60 c. Greater intensity from the Co-60 d. Higher gamma ray energy from the Co-60 - correct answer - Higher gamma ray energy from the Co-60 15. A 0.400 inch piece of lead shielding will reduce the radiation intensity from an lridium-192 source by: a. 3/4 b. 1/2 c. 1/4 d. 1/8 - correct answer - 3/4 Page |7 20. The term that describes how gamma or x-rays are reduced in intensity when passing through shielding material is: a. Penetration b. Scatter c. Reflection d. Attenuation - correct answer - Attenuation 21. The annual radiation exposure limits for a radiographer or an assistant can be summarized by: a. 1.25 Rem to the whole body, 18.75 Rem to the extremities b. 20 Rem to the whole body, 200 Rem to the extremities c. 5 mRem to the whole body, 50 mRem to the extremities d. 5 Rem to the whole body, 50 Rem to the extremities - correct answer - 5 Rem to the whole body, 50 Rem to the extremities 22. A 50 Curie Cobalt-60 source has decayed 4 half lives. What is the remaining activity? a. 6.25 Curies b. 3.125 Curies c. 0.195 Curies d. 1.56 Curies - correct answer - 3.125 Curies Page |8 23. The radiation intensity from a point source is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. This is known as: a. Inverse Square Law b. Linear Absorption Coefficient c. Photoelectric Attenuation Process d. Ohm's Law - correct answer - Inverse Square Law 24. The thickness of shielding material required to reduce a radiation intensity to one-half it's original value is known as the: a. Tenth value layer b. Half life c. Roentgen value layer d. Half value layer - correct answer - Half value layer 25. An element is identified by the number of in it's nucleus. a. Photons b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Protons - correct answer - Protons 26. What basic methods should a radiographer use to control exposure to radiation? a. Half life, shielding and distance Page |10 30. An Iridium-192 source that was originally 110 Curies has decayed for 222 days. At what distance from the source should a radiographer place the "Restricted Area" boundary? a. 189.1 feet b. 411.1 feet c. 119.6 feet d. 534.8 feet - correct answer - 189.1 feet 31. Radiation detection instruments measure exposure to radiation based on the principal of: a. The inverse square law b. Mitosis c. Attenuation d. lonization - correct answer - lonization 32. Before the first radiographic exposure, a radiographer performs a reference survey of his exposure device containing 100 Curies of Iridium-192. During this survey, he observes a zero reading on his survey meter. The radiographer should: 33. (Answer with A, B, C, or D) a. Proceed with radiographic operations as a zero reading indicates a safe radiation level b. Assume the exposure device is empty based on the survey c. Expose the source and perform more surveys to confirm the survey meter responds d. Assume the survey meter is not working properly. The exposure device must be surveyed with another survey meter - correct answer - D Page |11 34. A radiographer discovers that his pocket dosimeter is "off scale" during a lunch break. The radiographer should: 35. (Answer with A, B, C, or D) a. Obtain a replacement pocket dosimeter before returning to work b. Assume that he bumped the pocket dosimeter while working and continue radiographic operations c. Immediately stop all work with radiation, notify the RSO or designee and send the film badge or TLD out for emergency processing within 24 hours d. Re-zero the pocket dosimeter before returning to work - correct answer - C 36. By regulations, survey meters that are utilized in radiographic operations must be capable of measuring a range of: 37. (Answer with A, B, C, or D) a. 10 mR/hr-1000 mR/hr b. 0 mR/hr-500 mR/hr c. 2 mR/hr-1000 mR/hr d. 5 mR/hr-1 R/hr - correct answer - C 38. Which of the following describes the information that must be included on a utilization log? 39. (Answer with A, B, C, or D) Page |13 42. The "High Radiation Area" boundary is established where the exposure could exceed: a. 500 mR/hr b. 100 mR/hr c. 5 mR/hr d. 2 mR/hr - correct answer - 100 mR/hr 43. After terminating a radiographic exposure, radiographers are required to perform a survey of: 44. (Answer with A, B, C, or D) a. The specimen that was being radiographed b. The "Restricted Area" boundary c. The exposure device, entire length of source guide tube and collimator if used d. The exposure device - correct answer - C 45. Asurvey meter dial reads 1-10 with units of mR/hr and has three scales; x1, x10 and x100. What is the measured radiation intensity when the needle is on the 3 and the scale is x100? a. 3 mR/hr b. 30 mR/hr c. 100 mR/hr d. 300 mR/hr - correct answer - 300 mR/hr 46. Page |14 Leak test are performed periodically to determine if removable contamination limits are in excess of 0.005 microCuries (uCi). The required leak test for industrial radiography are: 47. 48. 49. 50. (Answer with A, B, C, or D) a. Perform a leak test of the sealed source every 12 months b. Perform a leak test of the sealed source every 3 months c. Perform a leak test of the sealed source every 6 months and exposure devices that have Depleted Uranium (DU) shielding every 12 months d. Perform a leak test of the sealed source, exposure device and associated equipment every 6 months - correct answer -C Assistant radiographers are qualified to: (Answer with A, B, C, or D) a. Perform radiographic operations independently b. Be responsible, at the site where sealed sources are being used, to ensure all license conditions and regulations are complied to . Manipulate the sealed source without direct supervision . Perform all radiographic operations while under the direct supervision of a certified radiographer - correct answer - D ao Whenever an exposure device is not under the direct surveillance of a radiographer or his assistant, it must: Page |16 55. The radiation intensity at 1 foot from an Iridium-192 source is 598 R/hr. What is the radiation intensity at 25 feet from this source? a. 0.957 R/hr b. 0.010 R/hr c. 23.90 R/hr d. 5.980 R/hr - correct answer - 0.957 R/hr 56. Alarm rate meters are required to sound an audible warning at what radiation intensity? a. 500 Rem b. 2 mR/hr c. 500 mR/hr d. 200 mR/hr - correct answer - 500 mR/hr 57. During a radiographic exposure the radiographer and the assistant radiographer should: 58. (Answer with A, B, C, or D) a. Maintain continuous direct surveillance of the High Radiation area and perform a survey of the Restricted area boundary to ensure 2 mR/hr or less b. Survey the High Radiation and Restricted area boundaries to confirm proper Placement . Process film during the exposure to increase productivity . Catch up on paperwork requirements - correct answer - A [omme) Page |17 59. The USNRC's requirements for industrial radiography are contained in the following regulations: 60. (Answer with A, B, C, or D) a. 49 CFR Parts 171-179 b. 10 CFR Parts 19, 20, 21, 30, 34, 71 c. 49 CFR Part 99 d. Nureg 1600 - correct answer - B 61. In controlling exposure to x-rays, which of the following is true? 62. (Answer with A, B, C, or D) a. Shielding may be less effective than with gamma radiation due to the continuous nature of x-rays b. Working distance calculations must take into account the build-up factors c. High Radiation and Restricted area boundaries must be posted under the same requirements as when using gamma radiation sources d. Because x-ray machine produce noise when energized, personnel in close proximity to the tube head would be alerted, making use of x-ray systems slightly more safer - correct answer - C 63. X-ray machine control panels must: 64. (Answer with A, B, C, or D) 
