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AcT Practice Exam
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a Technical Test Analyst in a risk‑based testing approach? A) To execute all test cases regardless of risk B) To identify, assess, and help mitigate technical risks C) To create marketing documentation for the product D) To perform only usability testing Answer: B Explanation: The Technical Test Analyst focuses on technical risks (performance, security, etc.) and contributes to their identification, assessment, and mitigation within a risk‑based testing framework. Question 2. In risk identification, which quality characteristic is most closely associated with “memory leaks”? A) Portability B) Reliability C) Performance D) Maintainability Answer: C Explanation: Memory leaks affect system performance, leading to degraded response times or crashes under load, thus they are a performance‑related technical risk. Question 3. When assessing the likelihood of a technical risk, which of the following is the most appropriate source of information? A) Customer satisfaction surveys B) Historical defect density data of similar modules
AcT Practice Exam
C) Marketing forecasts D) End‑user training material Answer: B Explanation: Historical defect data provides empirical evidence of how often similar risks have materialized, aiding in likelihood estimation. Question 4. Which test type is most suitable for mitigating a high‑impact security vulnerability discovered during risk assessment? A) Smoke testing B) Penetration testing C) Regression testing D) Usability testing Answer: B Explanation: Penetration testing deliberately attempts to exploit security weaknesses, directly addressing high‑impact security risks. Question 5. Statement coverage aims to execute which of the following? A) Every possible path through the code B) Every executable statement at least once C) Every decision outcome at least once D) Every combination of condition outcomes Answer: B
AcT Practice Exam
B) All possible combinations of condition outcomes to be tested C) Only the true outcomes of decisions to be executed D) No testing of decision outcomes Answer: B Explanation: MCC mandates testing every possible combination of condition truth values, leading to a combinatorial explosion compared to MC/DC. Question 9. When selecting a white‑box test technique for a module with high cyclomatic complexity, which technique is generally most efficient? A) Statement coverage B) Decision coverage C) MC/DC D) Path coverage Answer: B Explanation: Decision coverage provides a good balance between effort and fault detection for complex code, whereas path coverage may be impractical due to the high number of possible paths. Question 10. Which of the following is a key advantage of API testing performed as a white‑box activity? A) Ability to test UI layout consistency B) Direct verification of internal data transformations C) Evaluation of end‑user experience D) Measurement of network latency only
AcT Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: White‑box API testing can inspect internal data handling, request/response structures, and business logic that are not visible through black‑box testing. Question 11. In the context of static analysis, cyclomatic complexity is primarily used to measure: A) Number of lines of code B) Number of decision points in a program C) Memory consumption of an application D) Execution time of test cases Answer: B Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity calculates the number of linearly independent paths through the code, reflecting the number of decision points. Question 12. Which static analysis metric would best help identify potential maintainability problems? A) Response time under load B) Depth of inheritance tree C) Number of concurrent users supported D) Packet loss rate Answer: B Explanation: A deep inheritance tree can increase code complexity and reduce maintainability, making it a useful static metric. Question 13. Dynamic analysis is most useful for detecting which type of defect?
AcT Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: An operational profile captures the distribution of typical user actions, guiding realistic load and performance test scenarios. Question 16. Which security testing technique focuses on identifying known vulnerabilities through automated scanning? A) Penetration testing B) Fuzz testing C) Vulnerability scanning D) Code review Answer: C Explanation: Vulnerability scanners compare the target system against a database of known weaknesses to flag potential security issues. Question 17. In reliability testing, “fault tolerance” refers to: A) The ability of the system to recover from a fault without external intervention B) The speed at which a system processes transactions C) The ease of installing the software on multiple platforms D) The number of users that can simultaneously log in Answer: A Explanation: Fault tolerance is the capability of a system to continue operating correctly despite the presence of faults.
AcT Practice Exam
Question 18. Which of the following is a primary goal of recovery testing? A) Verify that the system can restore data after a crash B) Measure the time taken to load a web page C) Check the correctness of UI translations D) Ensure that the source code compiles without errors Answer: A Explanation: Recovery testing validates that the system can recover to a stable state and preserve data integrity after a failure. Question 19. Load testing primarily measures: A) System behavior under expected normal workload B) System behavior under extreme, beyond‑capacity conditions C) Compatibility with different browsers D) Security of encrypted communications Answer: A Explanation: Load testing evaluates performance under anticipated, typical usage levels to ensure the system meets service level agreements. Question 20. Stress testing differs from load testing in that it: A) Uses only functional test cases B) Pushes the system beyond its design limits to observe failure behavior C) Focuses on UI aesthetics D) Requires no monitoring of resource utilization
AcT Practice Exam
B) The ease with which software can be transferred to a different environment C) The number of concurrent users supported D) The correctness of business logic Answer: B Explanation: Portability concerns the ability to move software across hardware, OS, or other platforms with minimal effort. Question 24. Compatibility testing includes which of the following activities? A) Verifying that the application works with different browsers, OS, and other software components B) Measuring CPU usage under peak load C) Checking for SQL injection vulnerabilities D) Counting the number of unit tests executed Answer: A Explanation: Compatibility testing ensures the system co‑exists and interoperates correctly with various environments and external components. Question 25. During a technical review, a checklist item “All public methods have unit tests” belongs to which review focus? A) UI consistency B) Code coverage and testability C) Database schema design D) Project schedule
AcT Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: This checklist item targets the testability of code and ensures that each public interface is verified by unit tests. Question 26. Which of the following best describes an inspection in the context of technical reviews? A) An informal walkthrough with no documentation B) A formal, systematic examination of work products with defined roles and metrics C) A performance test run on a staging environment D) A user acceptance survey Answer: B Explanation: Inspections are structured, formal reviews with defined processes, roles (moderator, author, reviewer), and defect metrics. Question 27. A Technical Test Analyst participating in a design walkthrough would most likely look for: A) Misspelled labels on UI screens B) Inefficient algorithms that could impact performance C. Marketing copy errors D. End‑user training material gaps Answer: B Explanation: The Technical Test Analyst focuses on technical aspects such as algorithm efficiency, resource usage, and potential performance bottlenecks.
AcT Practice Exam
D) Requirement management tool Answer: B Explanation: Load testing tools provide performance metrics such as CPU utilization, response time, and throughput during simulated load. Question 31. In a test automation framework, the “page object model” primarily addresses which concern? A) Parallel execution of test cases B) Separation of test logic from UI element locators to improve maintainability C) Encryption of test data D) Generation of test data Answer: B Explanation: The page object model abstracts UI element details, making scripts more readable and easier to maintain when UI changes. Question 32. Which of the following is a common technical challenge when automating security testing? A) Lack of a graphical user interface B. Need to handle dynamic authentication tokens and session management C. High availability of test environments D. Over‑abundance of test data Answer: B Explanation: Security tests often require handling rotating tokens, encrypted communications, and privileged access, complicating automation.
AcT Practice Exam
Question 33. The term “false positive” in static analysis refers to: A) A defect that is correctly identified B. A warning that does not correspond to an actual defect C. A runtime exception caused by the analysis tool D. A performance bottleneck discovered during testing Answer: B Explanation: A false positive is an issue reported by the tool that is not a real defect, potentially leading to wasted effort. Question 34. Which of the following best explains why code coverage metrics alone cannot guarantee defect‑free software? A. They measure only the amount of code executed, not the quality of the tests B. They are always 100 % for any test suite C. They only apply to performance testing D. They are irrelevant for white‑box testing Answer: A Explanation: High coverage indicates many statements/branches were executed, but does not ensure that all logical conditions and data values were adequately validated. Question 35. In the context of reliability testing, “Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)” is used to: A. Measure the average time a system operates before a failure occurs B. Determine the average time to fix a defect after detection
AcT Practice Exam
Explanation: Configurable rule sets enable the tool to enforce specific coding standards and detect violations. Question 38. In a dynamic analysis session aimed at profiling CPU usage, which of the following is a typical output? A. List of unreferenced variables B. Call graph with time spent in each function C. UML class diagram D. Requirement traceability matrix Answer: B Explanation: Dynamic profiling produces call graphs and timing information, revealing hotspots in CPU consumption. Question 39. Which of the following best describes “test data generation” as a technical activity? A. Creating realistic input data sets that satisfy functional and non‑functional constraints B. Writing user manuals C. Designing the UI layout D. Conducting stakeholder interviews Answer: A Explanation: Test data generation involves producing input values that exercise the system under test, often using techniques like equivalence partitioning or random data generation. Question 40. A Technical Test Analyst discovers that a module’s cyclomatic complexity is 25. According to common thresholds, this indicates:
AcT Practice Exam
A. Low risk, no further action needed B. High risk, recommend refactoring to reduce complexity C. The module is fully tested D. The module is ready for deployment Answer: B Explanation: Values above 10‑15 are often considered high; they increase testing effort and maintenance risk, suggesting refactoring. Question 41. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using a “continuous integration” pipeline for automated tests? A. Guarantees 100 % defect detection B. Provides immediate feedback on code changes, reducing integration issues C. Eliminates the need for manual testing entirely D. Increases the size of the codebase Answer: B Explanation: CI runs automated tests on each commit, detecting regressions early and improving overall quality. Question 42. In the context of API testing, “contract testing” primarily ensures that: A. The UI matches the design mock‑ups B. The API’s request/response schema adheres to the published specification C. The database schema is normalized D. The system can handle 10,000 concurrent users
AcT Practice Exam
A. Test execution time B. Defect detection percentage (DDP) – defects found / total known defects C. Number of test cases written D. Lines of code per test case Answer: B Explanation: DDP measures how many of the existing defects the test suite uncovers, indicating its effectiveness. Question 46. In a performance test, “think time” refers to: A. The time the server spends processing each request B. The simulated pause between user actions to mimic real user behavior C. The duration of the test run D. The time required to generate test data Answer: B Explanation: Think time models the natural delay a human user takes between interactions, making load generation more realistic. Question 47. Which of the following statements about “regression testing” is true? A. It only needs to be performed once after the initial release B. It verifies that recent changes have not unintentionally broken existing functionality C. It focuses exclusively on security defects D. It is performed manually only Answer: B
AcT Practice Exam
Explanation: Regression testing ensures that new code changes do not introduce defects into previously working features. Question 48. When using a static analysis tool that reports “code duplication,” the primary risk being highlighted is: A. Increased memory consumption at runtime B. Higher maintenance effort and potential for inconsistent bug fixes C. Slower network throughput D. Poor UI design Answer: B Explanation: Duplicated code leads to higher maintenance cost and increases the chance that a bug fixed in one copy is missed in another. Question 49. Which of the following is an example of a “non‑functional” test objective? A. Verify that a user can log in with valid credentials B. Measure the system’s response time under peak load C. Check that the application displays the correct logo D. Confirm that the database schema matches the ER diagram Answer: B Explanation: Response time under load is a performance (non‑functional) attribute, not a functional behavior. Question 50. In the context of test automation, “data‑driven testing” primarily means: A. Tests are written in a low‑level programming language
