JBL Module 2 Practice Exam: 200 Questions and Answers JBL (Jones & Bartlett Learning) Mod, Exams of Engineering

JBL Module 2 Practice Exam: 200 Questions and Answers JBL (Jones & Bartlett Learning) Module 2 typically covers Patient Assessment for EMS providers. This comprehensive practice exam includes 200 questions covering the critical components of patient assessment, including scene size-up, primary assessment, history taking, secondary assessment, reassessment, and monitoring devices.

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 06/23/2026

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JBL Module 2 Practice Exam: 200 Questions and Answers
JBL (Jones & Bartlett Learning) Module 2 typically covers Patient Assessment for EMS providers.
This comprehensive practice exam includes 200 questions covering the critical components of
patient assessment, including scene size-up, primary assessment, history taking, secondary
assessment, reassessment, and monitoring devices.
---
SECTION 1: SCENE SIZE-UP & SAFETY (Questions 1-20)
1. During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
- A. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.
- B. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.
- C. before you load the patient into the ambulance.
- D. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
Answer: D
Rationale: Standard precautions must be taken before any patient contact to protect against
bloodborne pathogens and other infectious materials.
---
2. What is the first step in any EMS call?
- A. Primary assessment
- B. Scene size-up
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JBL Module 2 Practice Exam: 200 Questions and Answers JBL (Jones & Bartlett Learning) Module 2 typically covers Patient Assessment for EMS providers. This comprehensive practice exam includes 200 questions covering the critical components of patient assessment, including scene size-up, primary assessment, history taking, secondary assessment, reassessment, and monitoring devices.

SECTION 1: SCENE SIZE-UP & SAFETY (Questions 1-20)

  1. During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
  • A. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.
  • B. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.
  • C. before you load the patient into the ambulance.
  • D. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact. Answer: D Rationale: Standard precautions must be taken before any patient contact to protect against bloodborne pathogens and other infectious materials.
  1. What is the first step in any EMS call?
  • A. Primary assessment
  • B. Scene size-up
  • C. Patient history
  • D. Vital signs Answer: B Rationale: Scene size-up is the first step and includes evaluating scene safety, determining the mechanism of injury/nature of illness, and identifying the number of patients.
  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of scene size-up?
  • A. Scene safety assessment
  • B. Mechanism of injury determination
  • C. Baseline vital signs
  • D. Number of patients identification Answer: C Rationale: Baseline vital signs are obtained during the primary or secondary assessment, not during scene size-up.
  1. A "significant mechanism of injury" (MOI) is important because it:
  • A. determines the exact injuries the patient has sustained.
  • B. may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.
  • C. always results in patient death or permanent disability.

Answer: B Rationale: Scene safety is the first priority to protect the EMS provider, the patient, and bystanders.

  1. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the scene size-up?
  • A. To obtain a complete medical history
  • B. To identify and manage life-threatening conditions
  • C. To identify potential hazards and determine the need for additional resources
  • D. To perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment Answer: C Rationale: Scene size-up identifies potential hazards, determines the mechanism of injury/nature of illness, and identifies the need for additional resources.
  1. A patient is found unresponsive in a closed garage with a running car. The FIRST action should be:
  • A. Assess the patient's airway
  • B. Remove the patient from the garage
  • C. Turn off the car
  • D. Ensure scene safety and ventilate the area

Answer: D Rationale: Scene safety is the priority. Carbon monoxide poisoning is a risk; ensure scene safety before approaching the patient.

  1. Standard precautions should be taken:
  • A. Only if the patient is bleeding
  • B. Only if the patient is known to have an infectious disease
  • C. For every patient contact
  • D. Only after the primary assessment Answer: C Rationale: Standard precautions should be taken for every patient contact regardless of the patient's known or suspected infection status.
  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of scene size-up?
  • A. Scene safety
  • B. Mechanism of injury
  • C. Primary assessment
  • D. Number of patients

Rationale: The mechanism of injury describes the force or forces that caused the injury, which helps predict the pattern and severity of injuries.

  1. Which of the following would be considered a "significant" mechanism of injury?
  • A. A patient who tripped and fell from standing height
  • B. A pedestrian struck by a vehicle at 20 mph
  • C. A patient who fell from a height of 8 feet
  • D. A patient involved in a low-speed rear-end collision Answer: B Rationale: Pedestrian struck by a vehicle is a significant MOI due to the high energy transfer and potential for multisystem trauma.
  1. At a mass-casualty incident, treatment and transport priorities should be determined after:
  • A. all the patients have been triaged.
  • B. a physician arrives at the scene.
  • C. area hospitals have been notified.
  • D. the number of patients is known. Answer: A

Rationale: All patients must be triaged to determine treatment and transport priorities based on the severity of their injuries.

  1. Which of the following is the most important reason to perform a scene size-up?
  • A. To identify the patient's medical history
  • B. To ensure the safety of the EMS crew
  • C. To determine the patient's chief complaint
  • D. To obtain baseline vital signs Answer: B Rationale: Ensuring the safety of the EMS crew is the most important reason for scene size-up.
  1. A patient is found lying on the floor at the bottom of a flight of stairs. The mechanism of injury is:
  • A. Fall from height
  • B. Blunt trauma
  • C. Penetrating trauma
  • D. Both A and B Answer: D Rationale: This is a fall from height (blunt trauma), which may result in significant injuries.
  1. When approaching a scene where there is evidence of violence, the EMS provider should:
  • A. Immediately enter to assess the patient
  • B. Wait for law enforcement to secure the scene
  • C. Assess the patient from a distance
  • D. Leave the scene immediately Answer: B Rationale: EMS providers should wait for law enforcement to secure the scene before approaching when there is evidence of violence.
  1. Which of the following is a component of the scene size-up?
  • A. Airway assessment
  • B. Breathing assessment
  • C. Identification of hazards
  • D. Vital signs Answer: C Rationale: Identification of hazards is a key component of scene size-up. Airway, breathing, and vital signs are assessed later.

SECTION 2: PRIMARY ASSESSMENT (Questions 21-50)

  1. An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on:
  • A. obtaining baseline vital signs.
  • B. airway, breathing, and circulation.
  • C. providing immediate transport.
  • D. gathering medical history data. Answer: B Rationale: Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) are the priority in any patient assessment, regardless of the mechanism of injury.
  1. The primary assessment of a patient begins with:
  • A. Forming a general impression
  • B. Assessing the airway
  • C. Checking mental status
  • D. Obtaining a chief complaint Answer: A Rationale: The primary assessment begins with forming a general impression, which includes assessing the patient's age, gender, position, and apparent condition.
  1. The "A" in the AVPU scale stands for:
  • A. Airway
  • B. Alert
  • C. Assessment
  • D. Abnormal Answer: B Rationale: AVPU stands for Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive. "A" represents Alert.
  1. Which of the following is the correct order of assessment in the primary survey?
  • A. Circulation, Airway, Breathing
  • B. Airway, Breathing, Circulation
  • C. Breathing, Airway, Circulation
  • D. Circulation, Breathing, Airway Answer: B Rationale: The correct order is Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABCs). Airway is assessed first, followed by breathing, then circulation.
  1. What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
  • A. Head tilt-chin lift
  • B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
  • C. Tongue-jaw lift
  • D. Recovery position Answer: B Rationale: The jaw-thrust maneuver is the preferred method for opening the airway in a patient with suspected trauma to minimize cervical spine movement.
  1. Which maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient without suspected trauma?
  • A. Head tilt-chin lift
  • B. Jaw-thrust maneuver
  • C. Tongue-jaw lift
  • D. Recovery position Answer: A Rationale: The head tilt-chin lift is the preferred method for opening the airway in a patient without suspected trauma.
  1. What is the minimum GCS score possible?
  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 3
  • D. 5 Answer: C Rationale: The minimum GCS score is 3 (1 point for each component: eye, verbal, motor).
  1. What is the maximum GCS score possible?
  • A. 10
  • B. 12
  • C. 14
  • D. 15 Answer: D Rationale: The maximum GCS score is 15 (4 points for eye, 5 for verbal, 6 for motor).
  1. A patient with a GCS score of 8 or less is considered to have:
  • A. A mild head injury
  • B. A moderate head injury
  • C. A severe head injury
  • D. No significant injury Answer: C Rationale: A GCS score of 8 or less indicates a severe head injury and often requires advanced airway management.
  1. The primary assessment is also known as the:
  • A. Secondary assessment
  • B. Focused assessment
  • C. Initial assessment
  • D. Detailed assessment Answer: C Rationale: The primary assessment is also called the initial assessment or primary survey.
  1. What is the purpose of the primary assessment?
  • A. To obtain a detailed medical history
  • B. To identify and treat life-threatening conditions
  • C. To perform a head-to-toe examination
  • D. To transport the patient Answer: B Rationale: The primary assessment is designed to identify and treat immediate life-threatening conditions.
  1. A patient with an airway obstruction is cyanotic and has absent breath sounds. The priority intervention is:
  • A. Administer oxygen
  • B. Open and clear the airway
  • C. Start CPR
  • D. Obtain vital signs Answer: B Rationale: Airway obstruction is an immediate life threat that must be addressed before any other interventions.
  1. The "D" in the primary assessment (often added as a fourth component) stands for:
  • A. Disability
  • B. Defibrillation
  • C. Drugs
  • D. Disposition Answer: A Rationale: In some protocols, "D" is added for Disability (neurological assessment), or "D" may represent Defibrillation in cardiac arrest situations.
  1. A palpable pulse is created by:
  • A. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.
  • B. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.
  • C. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.
  • D. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. Answer: D Rationale: A palpable pulse is created by pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.