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Question 1. Which of the following activities requires a leasing agent to hold a valid license? A) Showing a rental unit to a prospective tenant B) Collecting rent on behalf of the landlord after a lease is signed C) Drafting a lease agreement for the landlord’s signature D) All of the above Answer: D Explanation: State law defines showing, rent collection, and lease preparation as licensable activities for a leasing agent. Question 2. A leasing agent’s license must be renewed every: A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 3 years D) 5 years Answer: C Explanation: Most jurisdictions require a three-year renewal cycle, subject to continuing education and fee payment. Question 3. Which of the following is NOT considered a continuing education requirement for license renewal? A) Completing a state-approved 12-hour ethics course B) Attending a real-estate conference without a certificate of completion C) Passing a 6-hour fair-housing update course D) Submitting proof of a 3-hour property-management class Answer: B Explanation: Attendance alone does not satisfy the documented education requirement; a certificate of completion is needed.
Question 4. The sponsoring broker’s primary responsibility is to: A) Pay the leasing agent’s commissions directly to the client B) Provide supervision and ensure compliance with licensing law C) Set the rental rates for all properties listed by the agent D) File the lease agreements with the county recorder Answer: B Explanation: The broker must supervise agents, ensuring they act within the law and follow ethical standards. Question 5. Which action could result in license suspension for a leasing agent? A) Failing to update the broker’s address within 30 days of moving B) Accepting a commission directly from a tenant without broker involvement C) Advertising a property with a photograph taken from the internet D) All of the above Answer: D Explanation: Each listed action violates licensing regulations and can trigger disciplinary action. Question 6. In a leasing transaction, a “client” is defined as a party who: A) Receives a written disclosure of agency relationships B) Is merely a prospective tenant who has not signed a lease C) Pays the agent a commission directly D) Is the property owner or the landlord Answer: D Explanation: The client is the party to whom the agent owes fiduciary duties – typically the landlord or property owner.
Question 10. The “COLD-AC” acronym includes all of the following except: A) Confidentiality B) Loyalty C) Disclosure D) Negotiation Answer: D Explanation: COLD-AC stands for Confidentiality, Obedience, Loyalty, Disclosure, Accounting, and Care; negotiation is not part of the acronym. Question 11. Under statutory “minimum services,” a leasing agent must: A) Provide a full market analysis for rent pricing B) Prepare a lease that complies with local habitability standards C) Offer legal advice regarding lease terms D) Conduct annual property inspections Answer: B Explanation: Minimum services require the lease to meet legal habitability standards, but not market analysis or legal advice. Question 12. When handling escrow funds, a leasing agent must: A) Deposit the funds into a personal account for convenience B) Keep the escrow in a separate, interest-bearing trust account under the broker’s name C) Use the funds to pay for property repairs before the lease is signed D) Return the funds to the tenant immediately after signing Answer: B Explanation: Escrow must be placed in a trust account separate from personal funds, often interest-bearing, and held by the broker.
Question 13. Which advertising practice violates truth-in-advertising regulations? A) Stating “Pet-friendly” when the lease allows cats only B) Listing a unit’s square footage as “approximate” C) Including a disclaimer that the rent may change after the lease is signed D) Using a professional photographer for the listing Answer: A Explanation: Misrepresenting pet policies is a false statement and breaches advertising rules. Question 14. Compensation for a leasing agent must be: A) Paid directly to the agent by the tenant B) Paid through the sponsoring broker’s account C) Included as a line item on the tenant’s utility bill D) Negotiated after the lease term ends Answer: B Explanation: State law requires commissions to be processed through the broker’s escrow/trust account. Question 15. The Federal Fair Housing Act protects which of the following classes? A) Age B) Marital status C) Familial status D) Criminal history Answer: C
Explanation: The “Mrs. Miller” exemption allows owner-occupied homes with ≤ 4 units to be exempt, though many states impose additional restrictions. Question 19. A reasonable accommodation for a tenant with a disability might include: A) Installing a wheelchair ramp at the landlord’s expense B) Allowing a service animal in a “no-pets” building C) Permitting a larger unit at no additional cost D) Waiving the security deposit entirely Answer: B Explanation: Allowing a service animal is a typical reasonable accommodation; the other options may be reasonable modifications, not accommodations. Question 20. A reasonable modification differs from an accommodation because it: A) Changes the physical structure of the property B) Involves policy changes only C) Is always paid for by the tenant D) Does not require landlord approval Answer: A Explanation: Modifications alter the physical property (e.g., widening doorways), whereas accommodations adjust policies or rules. Question 21. Under the ADA, a leasing office must: A) Provide a wheelchair-accessible entrance and reception desk B) Offer free legal services to disabled applicants C) Allow service animals in private offices only D) Install automatic doors in all rental units
Answer: A Explanation: The ADA requires public areas, such as leasing offices, to be accessible, including entrances and reception. Question 22. Which state-level protected class is most commonly added beyond the federal list? A) Height B) Sexual orientation C) Hair color D) Political affiliation Answer: B Explanation: Many states extend protection to sexual orientation and gender identity. Question 23. The HUD’s primary role in fair-housing enforcement is to: Investigate complaints, mediate disputes, and pursue civil actions against violators. Answer: Investigate complaints, mediate disputes, and pursue civil actions against violators. Explanation: HUD enforces the FHFA through investigations, mediation, and litigation. Question 24. Real property includes: A) Movable equipment used in a rental business B) The land and any permanent improvements attached to it C) A tenant’s personal furniture D) A leasehold interest in a commercial building Answer: B Explanation: Real property is land plus permanently attached structures; personal property is movable.
Question 28. An “Estate at Will” differs from an “Estate at Sufferance” because: A) At Will is created by mutual consent; at Sufferance arises when a tenant stays after lease expiration without consent B) At Will requires written notice; at Sufferance does not C) At Will is only for commercial properties; at Sufferance is residential D) At Will allows subletting; at Sufferance does not Answer: A Explanation: An estate at will exists with mutual agreement, while an estate at sufferance (holdover) exists without landlord consent after lease expiration. Question 29. Which legal description method uses a series of compass directions, distances, and monuments? A) Lot and Block B) Metes and Bounds C) Rectangular Survey D) GPS Coordinates Answer: B Explanation: Metes and bounds describe property using bearings, distances, and physical markers. Question 30. In the Rectangular Survey system, a “section” is: A) One-eighth of a township, typically 640 acres B) One-quarter of a township, typically 160 acres C) One-half of a township, typically 320 acres D) The entire township, typically 36 square miles Answer: B Explanation: A township is 36 square miles; a section is one-quarter of a township (160 acres).
Question 31. Effective marketing for a rental unit should NOT include: A) High-quality photos and virtual tours B) Listing only the rent amount without any property details C) Highlighting nearby schools and amenities D) Using multiple online listing platforms Answer: B Explanation: Providing only the rent without details fails to attract qualified prospects. Question 32. When screening a prospective tenant, the Fair Housing Act prohibits: A) Checking credit history B) Asking about prior evictions C) Inquiring about a applicant’s source of income if the state protects that class D) Requesting a landlord reference Answer: C Explanation: If a jurisdiction protects source of income, asking about it is discriminatory. Question 33. A credit score of 620 is generally considered: A) Excellent and guarantees lease approval B) Poor and automatically disqualifies the applicant C) Fair, requiring additional verification of income or references D) Irrelevant in lease decisions Answer: C Explanation: A 620 score is fair; landlords often require supplemental documentation.
Explanation: Consideration (exchange of value) is a core contract element; notarization and arbitration clauses are optional. Question 37. A “gross lease” differs from a “net lease” in that: A) The tenant pays only rent, while the landlord covers all operating expenses B) The landlord pays rent to the tenant C) Both parties split utilities equally D) The lease includes a percentage of the tenant’s sales Answer: A Explanation: In a gross lease, the landlord bears operating costs; in a net lease, the tenant assumes some or all of those expenses. Question 38. A “percentage lease” is most commonly used for: A) Residential apartments B) Retail spaces where rent is based on a percentage of gross sales C) Industrial warehouses D) Government buildings Answer: B Explanation: Percentage leases tie rent to a tenant’s sales, typical in retail. Question 39. Ground leases are characterized by: A) A short-term lease of personal property B) Leasing the land while the tenant owns improvements on it C) A lease that automatically converts to ownership after 10 years D) A lease that includes a purchase option for the landlord Answer: B Explanation: In ground leases, the tenant leases land and may construct improvements, which may revert to the landowner at lease end.
Question 40. Preventive property maintenance includes: A) Repairing a broken window after a tenant reports it B) Scheduling quarterly HVAC filter changes to avoid system failure C) Responding to a burst pipe after it occurs D) Painting walls only when a tenant requests it Answer: B Explanation: Preventive maintenance aims to avoid problems before they arise, such as routine filter changes. Question 41. Which type of insurance primarily protects the landlord from liability for injuries on the property? A) Property insurance B) Rent loss insurance C) General liability insurance D) Flood insurance Answer: C Explanation: General liability covers third-party bodily injury claims on the property. Question 42. Accurate record-keeping for a leasing agent must include: A) Only the total amount of commissions earned annually B) Detailed logs of all communications, rent receipts, and security-deposit transactions C) Personal notes about tenant personalities D) A copy of every advertisement posted online Answer: B Explanation: Comprehensive records of financial and communication activities are required for compliance and audits.
Question 46. A landlord must give a tenant a 30-day notice to terminate a month-to-month tenancy for: A) Non-payment of rent only B) Any reason not prohibited by law (e.g., the landlord wants to move in) C) The tenant’s request to terminate early D) Minor lease violations Answer: B Explanation: For a month-to-month tenancy, a landlord may give a 30-day notice for any lawful reason. Question 47. Which of the following actions is considered an illegal “lockout”? A) Changing the locks after the tenant fails to pay rent, without a court order B) Changing the locks after a 5-day notice for non-payment is served C) Changing the locks after a tenant vacates voluntarily D) Changing the locks for a new tenant moving in Answer: A Explanation: Lockouts without a court order violate landlord-tenant law. Question 48. Under the Lead-Based Paint disclosure rule, a landlord must provide the tenant with: A) A copy of the property’s most recent appraisal B) An EPA-approved lead-hazard information pamphlet and any known lead-paint condition reports C) A list of all previous tenants D) A warranty for all appliances Answer: B
Explanation: Federal law requires the lead-hazard pamphlet and disclosure of known lead-paint conditions for pre-1978 housing. Question 49. Carbon-monoxide detector requirements typically apply to: A) All rental units regardless of fuel source B) Only units with gas-fired appliances or attached garages C) Only newly constructed homes D) Only commercial properties Answer: B Explanation: CO detectors are mandated where combustion appliances or attached garages present a risk. Question 50. A “radon disclosure” is required in states that: A) Have no known radon issues B.1) Have enacted specific radon-testing statutes for residential rentals C.2) Require tenants to purchase radon detectors themselves D) Ban radon testing altogether Answer: B. Explanation: Some states require landlords to disclose radon testing results or known hazards. Question 51. Which of the following is NOT a permitted method for a leasing agent to verify a tenant’s employment? A) Directly contacting the employer’s HR department for confirmation B.1) Requesting a recent pay stub from the applicant C.2) Using a third-party employment verification service that complies with the Fair Credit Reporting Act D.3) Asking the tenant’s neighbor about their job
Answer: A. Explanation: Grab bars are a physical alteration that assists a disabled tenant and may be required as a reasonable modification. Question 55. The “no-agency” relationship means: A) The agent acts as a fiduciary for both parties B) The agent provides services without creating a client-agent fiduciary duty C.1) The agent is prohibited from showing any properties D.2) The agent must disclose all commission amounts Answer: B Explanation: In a no-agency relationship, the agent offers limited assistance and owes no fiduciary duties. Question 56. Which of the following is a prohibited discriminatory practice in rental advertising? A.1) “Quiet neighborhood, perfect for families” B.2) “Pet-friendly apartment, cats only” C.3) “Close to public transit, ideal for students” D.4) “Spacious unit, $1,200/month” Answer: A. Explanation: “Perfect for families” can be interpreted as steering based on familial status, a protected class. Question 57. A “designated agent” in a real-estate transaction: A) Represents both buyer and seller simultaneously without consent B) Is the individual broker within a brokerage who is assigned to represent a specific client, while the brokerage maintains overall responsibility C.1) Represents only the broker, not the client
D.2) Is the same as a dual agent Answer: B Explanation: Designated agency assigns a specific broker-employee to a client, separating duties while the brokerage remains liable. Question 58. The “statutory minimum services” requirement for a leasing agent includes: A) Conducting a full market analysis and setting rent B) Drafting a lease that complies with local habitability and disclosure laws C.1) Providing legal advice on lease terms D.2) Offering tenant screening reports for free Answer: B Explanation: Minimum services focus on compliance with legal standards, not market analysis or legal counsel. Question 59. A landlord who receives a “notice to cure” from a tenant for a habitability issue must: A) Ignore it if the tenant has a history of complaints B.1) Respond within the timeframe required by state law and remedy the defect if valid C.2) Increase the rent to cover repair costs without fixing the issue D.3) Serve the tenant with a “notice to vacate” Answer: B. Explanation: The landlord must address legitimate habitability complaints within the legal cure period. Question 60. Which of the following best describes “dual agency” under state law? A) An arrangement where two separate brokers represent the same client
