Solutions to Math 3124 Homework: Order of Group Elements - Prof. Peter A. Linnell, Assignments of Algebra

Solutions to problem 1, 2, and 3 from the fourth homework of math 3124. The problems involve finding the order of group elements and determining if a group is abelian. The document also includes a reference to problem 14.31 from the textbook.

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Math 3124 Monday, October 6
Fourth Homework Solutions
1. We have
10 0+96+86+79+60+53+49+32+25+16=7
mod 11, where as the result should be 0 mod 11. Therefore we want to interchange
two digits so that [4] is added to the result. If we interchange adjacent numbers [a],
[b], the result is that [b][a]is added, so we want to find a,bso that [b][a] = [4]. A
glance at the above numbers tells us that the only possibility is interchanging the 9 and
2: this adds [2][9] = [4]to the result. Therefore the correct ISBN is 0-669-03295-6.
2. Clearly the order is at least 2 (only the identity has order 1). But
[1] [2]
[0] [4][1] [2]
[0] [4]=[1] [0]
[0] [1],
so the order is exactly 2.
3. Let gG. If g=e, then obviously g2=e. On the other hand if g6=e, then ghas order
2 and again we deduce that g2=e. Let a,bG. We need to prove ab =ba. Using
the above with g=a,b,ab, we obtain
a2=b2=abab =e.
Multiplying the last equation on the left and right by aand brespectively, we get
a2bab2=ab. Since a2=b2=e, we conclude that ebae =ab and hence ba =ab for
all a,bG, which proves that Gis abelian.
4. Problem 14.31 on page 81.
Prove that if Gis a group and a,bG, then o(a1ba)= o(b).
From the September 26 ungraded homework, we have (a1ba)n=a1bna. Also
a1bna=eif and only if bn=e. Therefore for nN,
(a1ba)n=e a1bna=e bn=e.
Thus the powers of a1ba which are eare exactly the same as the powers of bwhich
are e. Since o(g)is the least positive integer msuch that gm=e, it follows that
o(a1ba) = o(a), as required.
Remark. If one assumes that o(b) = n, then it is not sufficient to prove that (a1ba)n=
e, because this only shows that o(a1ba)n(or divides n).

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Math 3124 Monday, October 6

Fourth Homework Solutions

  1. We have

10 ∗ 0 + 9 ∗ 6 + 8 ∗ 6 + 7 ∗ 9 + 6 ∗ 0 + 5 ∗ 3 + 4 ∗ 9 + 3 ∗ 2 + 2 ∗ 5 + 1 ∗ 6 = 7

mod 11, where as the result should be 0 mod 11. Therefore we want to interchange two digits so that [4] is added to the result. If we interchange adjacent numbers [a], [b], the result is that [b] − [a] is added, so we want to find a, b so that [b] − [a] = [ 4 ]. A glance at the above numbers tells us that the only possibility is interchanging the 9 and 2: this adds [ 2 ] − [ 9 ] = [ 4 ] to the result. Therefore the correct ISBN is 0-669-03295-6.

  1. Clearly the order is at least 2 (only the identity has order 1). But ( [ 1 ] [ 2 ] [ 0 ] [ 4 ]

[ 1 ] [ 2 ]

[ 0 ] [ 4 ]

[ 1 ] [ 0 ]

[ 0 ] [ 1 ]

so the order is exactly 2.

  1. Let g ∈ G. If g = e, then obviously g^2 = e. On the other hand if g 6 = e, then g has order 2 and again we deduce that g^2 = e. Let a, b ∈ G. We need to prove ab = ba. Using the above with g = a, b, ab, we obtain

a^2 = b^2 = abab = e.

Multiplying the last equation on the left and right by a and b respectively, we get a^2 bab^2 = ab. Since a^2 = b^2 = e, we conclude that ebae = ab and hence ba = ab for all a, b ∈ G, which proves that G is abelian.

  1. Problem 14.31 on page 81. Prove that if G is a group and a, b ∈ G, then o(a−^1 ba) = o(b). From the September 26 ungraded homework, we have (a−^1 ba)n^ = a−^1 bna. Also a−^1 bna = e if and only if bn^ = e. Therefore for n ∈ N,

(a−^1 ba)n^ = e ⇐⇒ a−^1 bna = e ⇐⇒ bn^ = e.

Thus the powers of a−^1 ba which are e are exactly the same as the powers of b which are e. Since o(g) is the least positive integer m such that gm^ = e, it follows that o(a−^1 ba) = o(a), as required. Remark. If one assumes that o(b) = n, then it is not sufficient to prove that (a−^1 ba)n^ = e, because this only shows that o(a−^1 ba) ≤ n (or divides n).