

Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Prepare for your exams
Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points to download
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Material Type: Assignment; Class: Linear Analysis; Subject: Mathematics; University: George Mason University; Term: Unknown 1989;
Typology: Assignments
1 / 3
This page cannot be seen from the preview
Don't miss anything!


Exercise 1. Exercise 4, page 59 in Stein and Shakarchi.
SOLUTION: For part (b) note that since f (θ) is odd,
f̂ (n) = 1 2 π
∫ (^) π −π f (θ) e−inθ^ dθ = − i π
∫ (^) π 0 f (θ) sin(nθ) dθ = − i π
∫ (^) π 0 θ(π−θ) sin(nθ) dθ.
Continuing and using a standard integral table and the fact that sin(nπ) = 0 for all n, ∫ (^) π 0 θ(π − θ) sin(nθ) dθ = π
∫ (^) π 0 θ sin(nθ) dθ −
∫ (^) π 0 (π − θ) sin(nθ) dθ
= π
( (^) sin(nθ) n^2
θ cos(nθ) n
∣∣ ∣∣ ∣
π
0
) −
( (^2) θ sin(nθ) n^2
2 cos(nθ) n^3
θ^2 cos(nθ) n
∣∣ ∣∣ ∣
π
0
)
π^2 cos(nθ) n
( (^) 2 cos(nπ) n^3
π^2 cos(nπ) n
n^3
2(1 − (−1)n) n^3
Consequently f̂ (k) = − 4 i π k^3 if k is odd and zero otherwise so that in particular f̂ (−k) = −f̂ (k) for every k. By part (a) of Exercise 2, we have that
f (θ) ∼
∑ n≥ 1
2 i f̂ (n) sin(nθ) =
∑ k odd, k≥ 1
2 i − 4 i π k^3
sin(kθ) =
π
∑ k odd, k≥ 1
sin(kθ) k^3
Exercise 2. Exercise 5, page 59 in Stein and Shakarchi.
SOLUTION: Here f (θ) is even so that as above
f̂ (n) =^1 π
∫ (^) π 0 f (θ) cos(nθ) dθ =
π
∫ (^) δ 0 (1 − θ/δ) cos(nθ) dθ.
Now for n 6 = 0, and integrating by parts (with the help of an integral table) ∫ (^) δ 0 (1 − θ/δ) cos(nθ) dθ =
( (^) sin(nθ) n
cos(nθ) δ n^2
θ sin(nθ) δ n
)∣∣ ∣∣ ∣
δ
sin(nδ) n
cos(nδ) δ n^2
sin(nδ) n
1 − cos(n δ) δ n^2 Consequently f̂ (n) = 1 − δ π ncos(n δ 2 )for n 6 = 0 and (obviously) f̂ (0) = 2 δπ. By part (a) of Exercise 2, we have that
f (θ) ∼ f̂ (0) +
∑ n≥ 1
2 f̂ (n) cos(nθ) =
δ 2 π
∑^ ∞ n=
1 − cos(n δ) δ π n^2 cos(nθ).
Exercise 3. Exercise 6, page 59 in Stein and Shakarchi.
Starting with (b), note that clearly f̂ (0) = π 2 and that since f (θ) is even
f̂ (n) =^1 π
∫ (^) π 0
θ cos(nθ) dθ
and using integration by parts we have
f̂ (n) = 1 π
( (^) cos(nθ) n^2
θ sin(nθ) n
)∣∣ ∣∣ ∣
π
π
cos(nπ) − 1 n^2 = (−1)n^ − 1 π n^2 so that for n ≥ 1, f̂ (n) = (^) π n−^22 if n is odd and zero otherwise. By part (a) of Exercise 2, we have that
f (θ) ∼ f̂ (0) +
∑ n≥ 1
2 f̂ (n) cos(nθ) = π 2
π
∑ k odd, k≥ 1
cos(k θ) k^2
This is part (c). For part (d) note that the Fourier series of f converges absolutely and uniformly to f so that we can evaluate the series at each point and the corresponding numerical series converges to f at that point. So evaluating the series at θ = 0 gives 0 = f (0) = π 2
π
∑ k odd, k≥ 1
k^2
Solving gives ∑ k odd, k≥ 1
k^2
π^2 8 as desired. Now note that ∑ k even, k≥ 1
k^2
∑^ ∞ n=
(2n)^2
∑^ ∞ n=
n^2
Consequently, π^2 8
∑ k odd, k≥ 1
k^2
∑^ ∞ n=
n^2 so that (^) ∞ ∑ n=
n^2
π^2 8
π^2 6 as desired.