Linear Analysis - Homework 6 with Solution | MATH 675, Assignments of Linear Algebra

Material Type: Assignment; Class: Linear Analysis; Subject: Mathematics; University: George Mason University; Term: Unknown 1989;

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MATH 675 HOMEWORK #2
SOLUTIONS
Exercise 1. Exercise 4, page 59 in Stein and Shakarchi.
SOLUTION: For part (b) note that since f(θ) is odd,
b
f(n) = 1
2πZπ
πf(θ)einθ =i
πZπ
0f(θ) sin() =i
πZπ
0θ(πθ) sin()dθ.
Continuing and using a standard integral table and the fact that sin() = 0 for
all n,Zπ
0θ(πθ) sin() =πZπ
0θsin() Zπ
0(πθ) sin()
=πµsin()
n2θcos()
n¯¯¯¯¯
π
0µ2θsin()
n2+2 cos()
n3θ2cos()
n¯¯¯¯¯
π
0
=π2cos()
nµ2 cos()
n3π2cos()
n2
n3=2(1 (1)n)
n3.
Consequently b
f(k) = 4i
π k3if kis odd and zero otherwise so that in particular
b
f(k) = b
f(k) for every k.
By part (a) of Exercise 2, we have that
f(θ)X
n1
2ib
f(n) sin() = X
k odd, k1
2i4i
π k3sin() = 8
πX
k odd, k1
sin()
k3.
Exercise 2. Exercise 5, page 59 in Stein and Shakarchi.
SOLUTION: Here f(θ) is even so that as above
b
f(n) = 1
πZπ
0f(θ)cos() =1
πZδ
0(1 θ/δ)cos()dθ.
Now for n6= 0, and integrating by parts (with the help of an integral table)
Zδ
0(1 θ/δ) cos() =µsin()
ncos()
δ n2+θsin()
δ n ¯¯¯¯¯
δ
0
=sin()
ncos()
δ n2sin()
n+1
δ n2
=1cos(n δ)
δ n2
Consequently b
f(n) = 1cos( )
δ π n2for n6= 0 and (obviously) b
f(0) = δ
2π.
By part (a) of Exercise 2, we have that
f(θ)b
f(0) + X
n1
2b
f(n) cos() = δ
2π+ 2
X
n=1
1cos(n δ)
δ π n2cos().
pf3

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MATH 675 – HOMEWORK

SOLUTIONS

Exercise 1. Exercise 4, page 59 in Stein and Shakarchi.

SOLUTION: For part (b) note that since f (θ) is odd,

f̂ (n) = 1 2 π

∫ (^) π −π f (θ) e−inθ^ dθ = − i π

∫ (^) π 0 f (θ) sin(nθ) dθ = − i π

∫ (^) π 0 θ(π−θ) sin(nθ) dθ.

Continuing and using a standard integral table and the fact that sin(nπ) = 0 for all n, ∫ (^) π 0 θ(π − θ) sin(nθ) dθ = π

∫ (^) π 0 θ sin(nθ) dθ −

∫ (^) π 0 (π − θ) sin(nθ) dθ

= π

( (^) sin(nθ) n^2

θ cos(nθ) n

∣∣ ∣∣ ∣

π

0

) −

( (^2) θ sin(nθ) n^2

2 cos(nθ) n^3

θ^2 cos(nθ) n

∣∣ ∣∣ ∣

π

0

)

π^2 cos(nθ) n

( (^) 2 cos(nπ) n^3

π^2 cos(nπ) n

n^3

)

2(1 − (−1)n) n^3

Consequently f̂ (k) = − 4 i π k^3 if k is odd and zero otherwise so that in particular f̂ (−k) = −f̂ (k) for every k. By part (a) of Exercise 2, we have that

f (θ) ∼

∑ n≥ 1

2 i f̂ (n) sin(nθ) =

∑ k odd, k≥ 1

2 i − 4 i π k^3

sin(kθ) =

π

∑ k odd, k≥ 1

sin(kθ) k^3

Exercise 2. Exercise 5, page 59 in Stein and Shakarchi.

SOLUTION: Here f (θ) is even so that as above

f̂ (n) =^1 π

∫ (^) π 0 f (θ) cos(nθ) dθ =

π

∫ (^) δ 0 (1 − θ/δ) cos(nθ) dθ.

Now for n 6 = 0, and integrating by parts (with the help of an integral table) ∫ (^) δ 0 (1 − θ/δ) cos(nθ) dθ =

( (^) sin(nθ) n

cos(nθ) δ n^2

θ sin(nθ) δ n

)∣∣ ∣∣ ∣

δ

0

sin(nδ) n

cos(nδ) δ n^2

sin(nδ) n

δ n^2

1 − cos(n δ) δ n^2 Consequently f̂ (n) = 1 − δ π ncos(n δ 2 )for n 6 = 0 and (obviously) f̂ (0) = 2 δπ. By part (a) of Exercise 2, we have that

f (θ) ∼ f̂ (0) +

∑ n≥ 1

2 f̂ (n) cos(nθ) =

δ 2 π

∑^ ∞ n=

1 − cos(n δ) δ π n^2 cos(nθ).

Exercise 3. Exercise 6, page 59 in Stein and Shakarchi.

Starting with (b), note that clearly f̂ (0) = π 2 and that since f (θ) is even

f̂ (n) =^1 π

∫ (^) π 0

θ cos(nθ) dθ

and using integration by parts we have

f̂ (n) = 1 π

( (^) cos(nθ) n^2

θ sin(nθ) n

)∣∣ ∣∣ ∣

π

0

π

cos(nπ) − 1 n^2 = (−1)n^ − 1 π n^2 so that for n ≥ 1, f̂ (n) = (^) π n−^22 if n is odd and zero otherwise. By part (a) of Exercise 2, we have that

f (θ) ∼ f̂ (0) +

∑ n≥ 1

2 f̂ (n) cos(nθ) = π 2

π

∑ k odd, k≥ 1

cos(k θ) k^2

This is part (c). For part (d) note that the Fourier series of f converges absolutely and uniformly to f so that we can evaluate the series at each point and the corresponding numerical series converges to f at that point. So evaluating the series at θ = 0 gives 0 = f (0) = π 2

π

∑ k odd, k≥ 1

k^2

Solving gives ∑ k odd, k≥ 1

k^2

π^2 8 as desired. Now note that ∑ k even, k≥ 1

k^2

∑^ ∞ n=

(2n)^2

∑^ ∞ n=

n^2

Consequently, π^2 8

∑ k odd, k≥ 1

k^2

∑^ ∞ n=

n^2 so that (^) ∞ ∑ n=

n^2

π^2 8

π^2 6 as desired.