Maryland Critical Care Nurse Certification Exam – Questions and Correct Answers, Exams of Nursing

This document provides structured practice questions with correct answers designed to support candidates preparing for the Maryland Critical Care Nurse Certification Exam. It covers essential intensive care nursing competencies including hemodynamic monitoring, ventilator management, cardiac rhythm interpretation, shock management, sepsis care, pharmacology in critical care settings, neurological assessment, multi-organ failure management, and advanced life support principles used in ICU and high-acuity environments.

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2025/2026

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MARYLAND CRITICAL CARE NURSE CERTIFICATION
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) Q&A 2026 |INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. Which vital sign change is the earliest indicator of shock?
A. Blood pressure drop
B. Altered mental status
C. Bradycardia
D. Cyanosis
Rationale: Early shock causes decreased perfusion to the
brain leading to confusion before BP drops.
Correct answer: B
2. Normal central venous pressure (CVP) range is:
A. 02 mmHg
B. 26 mmHg
C. 612 mmHg
D. 1218 mmHg
Rationale: CVP reflects right atrial pressure; normal is 26
mmHg.
Correct answer: B
3. Which drug is first-line for cardiogenic shock with
hypotension?
A. Furosemide
B. Dopamine
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MARYLAND CRITICAL CARE NURSE CERTIFICATION

EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS

(VERIFIED ANSWERS) Q&A 2026 |INSTANT

DOWNLOAD PDF

  1. Which vital sign change is the earliest indicator of shock? A. Blood pressure drop B. Altered mental status C. Bradycardia D. Cyanosis Rationale: Early shock causes decreased perfusion to the brain leading to confusion before BP drops. Correct answer: B
  2. Normal central venous pressure (CVP) range is: A. 0–2 mmHg B. 2–6 mmHg C. 6–12 mmHg D. 12–18 mmHg Rationale: CVP reflects right atrial pressure; normal is 2– 6 mmHg. Correct answer: B
  3. Which drug is first-line for cardiogenic shock with hypotension? A. Furosemide B. Dopamine

C. Atropine D. Heparin Rationale: Dopamine supports cardiac output and blood pressure. Correct answer: B

  1. Which ABG result indicates respiratory acidosis? A. pH 7.48, CO₂ low B. pH 7.30, CO₂ high C. pH 7.50, HCO₃ high D. pH 7.40, normal gases Rationale: Elevated CO₂ with low pH indicates respiratory acidosis. Correct answer: B
  2. Most accurate method to measure arterial oxygenation is: A. Pulse oximetry B. ABG analysis C. Respiratory rate D. Capillary refill Rationale: ABGs directly measure PaO₂. Correct answer: B
  3. Normal adult urine output per hour is: A. 10 mL/hr B. 20 mL/hr C. 30–50 mL/hr D. 100 mL/hr

B. Bradycardia and hypertension C. Tachycardia D. Fever Rationale: Cushing’s triad indicates increased ICP. Correct answer: B

  1. First action in suspected anaphylactic shock: A. IV antibiotics B. Epinephrine C. Steroids D. Antihistamines only Rationale: Epinephrine reverses airway swelling and vasodilation. Correct answer: B
  2. Normal PaCO₂ range is: A. 20–30 mmHg B. 35–45 mmHg C. 50– 60 mmHg D. 60–70 mmHg Rationale: Normal ventilation maintains 35–45 mmHg. Correct answer: B
  3. Best indicator of tissue perfusion: A. Heart rate B. Blood pressure C. Serum lactate D. Temperature

Rationale: Lactate rises with anaerobic metabolism. Correct answer: C

  1. Most common cause of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS): A. Asthma B. Sepsis C. Hypertension D. Diabetes Rationale: Sepsis triggers inflammatory lung injury. Correct answer: B
  2. PEEP is used to: A. Decrease oxygenation B. Prevent alveolar collapse C. Reduce heart rate D. Increase CO₂ removal only Rationale: Positive end-expiratory pressure keeps alveoli open. Correct answer: B
  3. Normal serum potassium level: A. 2.5–3. B. 3.5–5. C. 5.5–6. D. 6.5–7. Rationale: Potassium is tightly regulated in this range. Correct answer: B

Rationale: Normal adult CO is 4–8 L/min. Correct answer: C

  1. Which medication is a vasopressor? A. Dopamine B. Morphine C. Furosemide D. Heparin Rationale: Dopamine increases vascular tone and BP. Correct answer: A
  2. Shock index is calculated as: A. BP/HR B. HR/SBP C. RR/HR D. MAP/HR Rationale: HR divided by systolic BP indicates shock severity. Correct answer: B
  3. Normal respiratory rate in adults: A. 8– 10 B. 10– 12 C. 12– 20 D. 20– 30 Rationale: 12–20 is normal adult range. Correct answer: C
  4. Most sensitive indicator of kidney injury: A. BUN

B. Creatinine C. Urine output D. Sodium Rationale: Creatinine reflects glomerular filtration. Correct answer: B

  1. Best position for a patient with increased ICP: A. Flat supine B. Trendelenburg C. Head elevated 30° D. Prone Rationale: Elevation improves venous drainage. Correct answer: C
  2. Primary goal in septic shock management: A. Increase glucose B. Maintain perfusion C. Reduce temperature D. Restrict fluids Rationale: Perfusion preservation prevents organ failure. Correct answer: B
  3. Initial fluid for septic shock resuscitation: A. D5W B. Normal saline C. Albumin only D. Hypertonic saline Rationale: Isotonic crystalloids restore volume. Correct answer: B

Rationale: Low sodium causes cerebral edema. Correct answer: A

  1. Best marker of oxygen delivery to tissues: A. PaO₂ B. Hemoglobin C. Cardiac output D. All of the above Rationale: Oxygen delivery depends on all three. Correct answer: D
  2. Normal hemoglobin range (female): A. 8–10 g/dL B. 10–12 g/dL C. 12–16 g/dL D. 16–20 g/dL Rationale: Females typically 12–16 g/dL. Correct answer: C
  3. First step in airway obstruction: A. Intubation B. Heimlich maneuver C. Chest x-ray D. Oxygen mask Rationale: Immediate obstruction relief is priority. Correct answer: B
  4. Normal pH range: A. 7.10–7. B. 7.25–7.

C. 7.35–7.

D. 7.45–7.

Rationale: Physiological pH is tightly regulated. Correct answer: C

  1. Metabolic acidosis is compensated by: A. Kidneys retaining CO₂ B. Lungs blowing off CO₂ C. Liver metabolism D. Heart rate increase Rationale: Hyperventilation reduces CO₂. Correct answer: B
  2. Best indicator of fluid overload: A. Dry mucosa B. Weight gain C. Tachycardia D. Hypotension Rationale: Rapid weight gain reflects fluid retention. Correct answer: B
  3. Most common ICU infection source: A. Skin B. Urinary catheter C. Brain D. Eyes Rationale: Catheter-associated infections are common. Correct answer: B

D. Glucometer Rationale: Continuous cardiac monitoring is critical. Correct answer: B

  1. Early sign of hypoxia: A. Bradycardia B. Restlessness C. Cyanosis D. Hypotension Rationale: CNS agitation is early hypoxia sign. Correct answer: B
  2. Normal lactate level: A. 0.5–1 mmol/L B. 1–2 mmol/L C. 2–4 mmol/L D. 5–6 mmol/L Rationale: Elevated lactate indicates hypoperfusion. Correct answer: B
  3. Best ventilation mode for acute respiratory failure: A. CPAP B. Assist-control ventilation C. Nasal cannula D. Simple mask Rationale: Full ventilatory support required. Correct answer: B
  4. Oxygen toxicity risk occurs with prolonged use of: A. Room air

B. High FiO₂ C. Nitrogen D. Helium Rationale: High oxygen concentrations damage lungs. Correct answer: B

  1. Normal magnesium level: A. 0.5–1. B. 1.5–2. C. 3.0–4. D. 4.5–5. Rationale: Magnesium supports neuromuscular function. Correct answer: B
  2. Hypomagnesemia may cause: A. Hypertension B. Arrhythmias C. Hyperglycemia D. Bradycardia only Rationale: Low magnesium destabilizes cardiac rhythm. Correct answer: B
  3. Most common cause of cardiac arrest in adults: A. Hypothermia B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Stroke D. Infection Rationale: VF is primary arrest rhythm. Correct answer: B

C. Platelets D. D-dimer Rationale: INR evaluates warfarin effect. Correct answer: B

  1. Signs of DVT include: A. Bradycardia B. Swollen limb C. Cough only D. Hypotension Rationale: Venous obstruction causes swelling. Correct answer: B
  2. Pulmonary embolism symptom: A. Chest pain and dyspnea B. Headache C. Jaundice D. Abdominal pain Rationale: PE affects pulmonary circulation. Correct answer: A
  3. Most accurate cardiac output measurement: A. Pulse B. Thermodilution C. BP cuff D. ECG Rationale: Swan-Ganz catheter provides accurate CO. Correct answer: B
  1. Normal MAP range: A. 30–40 mmHg B. 50–60 mmHg C. 70–100 mmHg D. 110–130 mmHg Rationale: MAP ≥65 is needed for perfusion. Correct answer: C
  2. Severe hypotension defined as MAP <: A. 100 B. 90 C. 65 D. 50 Rationale: <65 indicates organ hypoperfusion. Correct answer: C
  3. Early sepsis sign: A. Hypothermia B. Fever and tachycardia C. Bradycardia D. Cyanosis Rationale: Systemic inflammatory response occurs early. Correct answer: B
  4. Most important sepsis marker: A. Hemoglobin B. Lactate C. Sodium D. Potassium

C. Infection only D. Hypertension Rationale: Multiple factors, sleep deprivation major. Correct answer: B

  1. Best prevention of ICU delirium: A. Isolation B. Sedation increase C. Early mobilization D. Fluid restriction Rationale: Mobilization reduces cognitive decline. Correct answer: C
  2. Normal glucose range: A. 40–60 mg/dL B. 70–110 mg/dL C. 120–160 mg/dL D. 160–200 mg/dL Rationale: Normal fasting glucose range. Correct answer: B
  3. Hyperglycemia in ICU is associated with: A. Faster healing B. Increased infection risk C. Lower mortality D. No effect Rationale: High glucose impairs immunity. Correct answer: B
  1. Insulin administration requires monitoring of: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Magnesium Rationale: Insulin shifts potassium intracellularly. Correct answer: B
  2. Most common electrolyte imbalance in ICU: A. Hypernatremia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypermagnesemia Rationale: Potassium imbalance is frequent. Correct answer: B
  3. Hypokalemia ECG change: A. Peaked T waves B. U waves C. Wide QRS D. ST elevation Rationale: Low potassium produces U waves. Correct answer: B
  4. Best indicator of shock improvement: A. BP only B. Urine output C. Skin color D. Temperature