Math 444 Group E13 Final Exam Answer Key, Exams of Calculus

The answer key for the Math 444 Group E13 Final Exam at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign in Fall 2006. The exam covers topics such as continuity, differentiability, and boundedness of functions on closed bounded intervals. The exam consists of four questions, each worth a different number of points. detailed solutions to each question, including explanations and proofs. The exam allows the use of textbooks but prohibits the use of calculators, mobile phones, and other electronic devices.

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University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign Fall 2006
Math 444 Group E13
Final Exam : Answer Key
You are allowed to use your textbook, but no other kind of documentation.
Calculators, mobile phones and other electronic devices are prohibited.
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Download Math 444 Group E13 Final Exam Answer Key and more Exams Calculus in PDF only on Docsity!

University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign Fall 2006 Math 444 Group E

Final Exam : Answer Key

You are allowed to use your textbook, but no other kind of documentation. Calculators, mobile phones and other electronic devices are prohibited.

NAME โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€“

SIGNATURE โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€”โ€“

Define a function f : [0, +โˆž) โ†’ R by setting f (x) = sin(

x). Show that f is continuous on [0, +โˆž) and differentiable on (0, +โˆž) ; give a formula for f โ€ฒ(x) for all x > 0. Is f differentiable at 0? (You may use without demonstration the fact that the function x 7 โ†’ sin(x) is differentiable on R and that sinโ€ฒ(x) = cos(x), and the fact that x 7 โ†’

x is differentiable on (0, +โˆž) and (

x)โ€ฒ^ = 2 โˆš^1 x )

Answer. The function g : x 7 โ†’ sin(x) is continuous on R, and the function h 7 โ†’

x is continuous on R+. Hence f = g โ—ฆ h is continuous on R+, since it is a obained by composition of two continuous functions. Similarly, the Chain Rule ensures that f is differentiable on (0, +โˆž), and f โ€ฒ(x) = 2 โˆš^1 x cos(

x).

To see whether f is differentiable at 0 , the simplest thing is to go back to the definition ; one has f (0) = 0, so f (x)โˆ’f (0) xโˆ’ 0 =^

f (x) x =^

sin(โˆšx) x. Since we know that^ limxโ†’^0

sin(x) x = cos(0) = 1, we see that^

f (x) x is not bounded in the neighborhood of 0 (it is the product of a function with limit 1 and a function which is not bounded).

Hence f^ (x x)โˆ’โˆ’f 0 (0) doensโ€™t have a limit at 0 , and this shows that f is not differentiable at 0.

Let f be continuous on [0, +โˆž) ; for all x > 0 , set g(x) =

x

โˆซ (^) x

0

f (t)dt.

(a) Show that g is continuous on (0, +โˆž), and that g has a limit at 0 ; give the value of this limit. (b) Show that g is differentiable on (0, +โˆž) and that for all x > 0 one has

gโ€ฒ(x) =

f (x) โˆ’ g(x) x

Answer. (a) By the fundamental theorem of integration we know, since f is continuous on [0, +โˆž), that the function x 7 โ†’ F (x) =

โˆซ (^) x 0 f^ (t)dt^ is differentiable on^ [0,^ +โˆž)^ ; hence it is continuous on^ [0,^ +โˆž). So on^ (0,^ +โˆž) g is the product of two continuous functions, which shows that it is continuous on this interval. Also, with our notations one has g(x) = F^ ( xx ). Since F (0) = 0, and F is differentiable at 0 , we know that limxโ†’ 0 F^ ( xx )exists and is equal to F โ€ฒ(0) = f (0). This is equivalent to saying limxโ†’ 0 g(x) = f (0). (b) The product of two differentiable functions is a differentiable function, so (since F is differentiable, F โ€ฒ(x) = f (x) and g(x) = (^) x^1 ยท F (x)) we see that g is differentiable on (0, +โˆž) and

gโ€ฒ(x) = โˆ’

x^2

F (x) +

x

F โ€ฒ(x) = โˆ’

g(x) x

f (x) x

f (x) โˆ’ g(x) x

Pick two real numbers a, b such that a < b and let f : [a, b] โ†’ R be continuous. We want to show that

sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)} = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]}.

(a) Explain why sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)} and sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} exist. (b) Show that sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)} โ‰ค sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]}. (c) Assume f (a) = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]}. Show that one also has f (a) = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)} (look at the sequence (a + (^) n^1 )). Can you prove a similar result when f (b) = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]}? (d) Prove the equality sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)} = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]}.

Answer. (a) Since f is a continuous function on the closed bounded interval [a, b], the Boundedness Theorem ensures that there exists m, M such that m โ‰ค f (x) โ‰ค M for all x โˆˆ [a, b]. This shows that the set {f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} is bounded, so it has a supremum (because of the completeness property of the real numbers). Since {f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)} is a subset of {f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} and the latter set is bounded, we see that sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)} exists too. (b) For any x โˆˆ (a, b) one has f (x) โ‰ค sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]}, so sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} is an upper bound of {f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)}. By definition of a supremum (least upper bound), this implies that sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} โ‰ค sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]}. (c) There exists N such that an = a + (^1) n โ‰ค b for all n โ‰ฅ N. Thus we can consider the sequence (f (an))nโ‰ฅN ; since f is continuous at a, this sequence converges to f (a). Since one has f (an) โ‰ค sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)}, we also have lim f (an) = f (a) โ‰ค sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)}. Thus if f (a) = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} then we get sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} โ‰ค sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)}, and the result of question (b) ensures that in factsup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)} in that case. Considering the sequence bn = b โˆ’ (^1) n , we obtain in the same way that if f (b) = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} then sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)}. (d) If the sup for f on [a, b] is obtained at either a or b then the result of question (c) shows that sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)}. There must be a sup for the continuous function f on [a, b], and actually it is a maximum ; so if we are not in the case above then there exists c โˆˆ (a, b) such that f (c) = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]}. By definition, one has f (c) โ‰ค sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)}, so we again obtain

sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} โ‰ค sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)}

Since the maximum for f must be attained at either a, b, or some c โˆˆ (a, b), the reasoning above shows that if f is continuous on a closed bounded interval [a, b] then

sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ [a, b]} = sup{f (x) : x โˆˆ (a, b)}.

Let f : [0, 1] โ†’ [0, 1] be an increasing function (not necessarily continuous). Show that there exists x โˆˆ [0, 1] such that f (x) = x. Hint. Consider the set E = {x โˆˆ [0, 1] : f (x) > x} ; show that one can assume that 0 โˆˆ E. Show that x = sup(E) works.

Answer. If f (0) = 0 there is nothing to prove, so we may assume that f (0) > 0 , and this gives

0 โˆˆ E = {x โˆˆ [0, 1] : f (x) > x}.

Thus we may assume that E is nonempty. Since E is bounded (it is a subset of [0, 1]), it has a supremum S, which is larger than 0 (because 0 โˆˆ E) and smaller than 1 (because 1 is an upper bound for E). For any ฮต > 0 there exists x โˆˆ E such that S โˆ’ ฮต < x < S. Since f is increasing, f (S) โ‰ฅ f (x) > x > S โˆ’ ฮต, so f (S) > S โˆ’ ฮต for all ฮต > 0. This yields f (S) โ‰ฅ S. If f (S) = S we are done ; assume that it is not true and f (S) > S. Then pick a โˆˆ [0, 1] such that S < a < f (S). Since f is increasing one has f (a) โ‰ฅ f (S) > a, so a โˆˆ E, which is impossible because S is the supremum of E. Hence f (S) = S, and we are done.

Recall that if X is a set, one denotes by P(X) the set whose elements are the subsets of X ; in other words, P(X) = {A : A โŠ‚ X}. Let now X, Y be sets and f : X โ†’ Y be a function. (a) Define a function fห† : P(X) โ†’ P(Y ) by setting fห† (A) = f (A) for all A โŠ‚ X. Show that fห† is injective if, and only if, f is injective. (b) Similarly, define a function fหœ : P(Y ) โ†’ P(X) by setting fหœ (B) = f โˆ’^1 (B) for all B โŠ‚ Y. Compute fหœ (โˆ…) ; show that fหœ is injective if, and only if, f is surjective.

Answer. (a) Assume that fห† is injective, and let x, y โˆˆ X be such that f (x) = f (y). Then fห† ({x}) = {f (x)} = fห† ({y}), so since fห† is injective we obain {x} = {y}, in other words x = y. Thus if fห† is injective then f is injective. Converesly, assume that f is injective and A, B โŠ‚ X are such that f (A) = f (B). Then pick a โˆˆ A. One has f (a) โˆˆ f (A) = f (B), so there exists b โˆˆ B such that f (b) = f (a). Since f is injective, this is only possible if b = a, hence a โˆˆ B. Thus A โŠ‚ B ; similarly, one sees that if B โŠ‚ A. This shows that A = B ; hence if f is injective then fห† is injective too. We have just proved that f is injective if, and only if, fห† is injective.

(b) This one is perhaps a bit more complicated. Assume that fหœ is injective ; one has fหœ (โˆ…) = โˆ…, so for all y โˆˆ Y one has fหœ ({y}) 6 = โˆ…. This exactly means that for all y โˆˆ Y f โˆ’^1 ({y}) = {x โˆˆ X : f (x) = y} is nonempty, in other words that f is surjective. Converesly, assume that f is surjective, and A, B โŠ‚ Y are such that fหœ (A) = fหœ (B). Then pick a โˆˆ A ; since f is surjective, there exists x such that f (x) = a. By definition, x โˆˆ f โˆ’^1 (A), and since f โˆ’^1 (A) = f โˆ’^1 (B) we also have x โˆˆ f โˆ’^1 (B), which means that f (x) = a โˆˆ B. This is true for all a โˆˆ A, so A โŠ‚ B. Since A, B play symmetric roles here, one obtains similarly that B โŠ‚ A. Hence A = B, hence fหœ is injective. This shows that is f is surjective then fหœ is injective. We have thus proved that fหœ is injective if, and only if, f is surjective.