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Assignment for class. Includes discussion of various diseases of metabolic disorder.
Typology: Exams
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1) A 42-year-old lady with rheumatoid arthritis has been on corticosteroids for 2 years. She presented to emergency department with back pain and radiological examination showed crush fracture of her lower thoracic vertebrae. Biochemical investigations were as follows: Serum Analyte Reference range Calcium 2.4 mmol/L 2.2 – 2. Phosphate 1.0 mmol/L 0.8 - 1. Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) 170 U/L 30 - 150 **a) Interpret the biochemical results and explain the abnormality. b) State the most likely diagnosis. c) State the investigation to confirm the diagnosis and its criteria for confirmation. d) State the most likely cause for your diagnosis in this patient. e) List three (3) other causes for the diagnosis stated in (c). f) Describe the role of bone turnover markers (BTM) in osteoporosis. g) State the first-line treatment for this condition.
b) State the most likely diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms.
f) Explain the pathophysiology of this metabolic bone disorder with regards to this patient. The primary proposed mechanisms for anticonvulsant induced osteopathy are development of vitamin D deficiency, hypocalcaemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Other mechanisms include a direct effect on bone cells, sex steroids and vitamin K [ 2 ]. Enzyme inducing drugs causes increased expression of cytochrome P24 that inactivates 25 hydroxy vitamin D into inactive calcitriol acid. Resulting vitamin D deficiency leads to hypocalcaemia, hypophosphatemia, secondary hyperparathyroidism all of which contribute to increased bone loss. Phenytoin, also, directly decreases calcium absorption leading to hypocalcaemia. It also causes vitamin K deficiency. Vitamin K deficiency can potentially cause bone loss by preventing the post-translational modification of the vitamin K-dependent matrix proteins. Phenytoin and carbamazepine inhibit osteoblast while valproic acid activates osteoclast leading to bone loss [ 3 , 4 ]. Enzyme inducing anticonvulsants like phenytoin and carbamazepine decrease levels of free androgens by increasing the clearance of androgen as well as increasing sex hormone binding globulin levels g) The physician was surprised at the serum phenytoin concentration. It later transpired that the patient had taken his dose just prior to his out-patient appointment. Comment upon the drug plasma levels. Optimum control without clinical signs of toxicity occurs more often with serum levels between 10 and 20 mcg/mL. The patient was supposed to show signs of toxicity if 30mg/L was the reading.phenytoin is generally 90% bound to plasma proteins (mostly albumin), and only its unbound form is pharmacologically active. Patients with decreased protein binding capacity may display symptoms of toxicity despite normal total phenytoin levels.