Math 152 - Calculus II Second Midterm Solution, Exams of Calculus

Solutions to the second midterm exam for calculus ii course, including indefinite and definite integrals, improper integrals, and comparison theorem for improper integrals. It also covers approximating the value of an integral using midpoint rule and simpson's rule.

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2012/2013

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Math 152 Calculus II Second Midterm Solution November 1, 2006
1. Evaluate the following indefinite integrals. Clearly indicate which methods you apply.
(a) (3 points)
Z(cos x)5(sin x)3dx
Answer
I=Z(cos x)5(sin x)3dx =Z(cos x)5(1 cos2x) sin xdx
We substitute u= cos x, so that du =sin xdx to obtain
I=Zu5(1 u2)du =u6/6 + u8/8 + C
Substituting back u= cos xwe obtain
I=1
6(cos x)6+1
8(cos x)8+C
(b) (3 points)
Zex
xdx
Answer
We substitute u=x, so that u2=xand 2udu =dx and obtain
Zeu
u2udu =Z2eudu = 2eu+C= 2ex+C
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Math 152 – Calculus II Second Midterm Solution November 1, 2006

  1. Evaluate the following indefinite integrals. Clearly indicate which methods you apply.

(a) (3 points) ∫

(cos x)

5 (sin x)

3 dx

Answer

I =

(cos x)

5 (sin x)

3 dx =

(cos x)

5 (1 − cos

2 x) sin xdx

We substitute u = cos x, so that du = − sin xdx to obtain

I =

−u

5 (1 − u

2 )du = −u

6 /6 + u

8 /8 + C

Substituting back u = cos x we obtain

I = −

(cos x)

6

(cos x)

8

  • C

(b) (3 points) ∫ e

√ x

√ x

dx

Answer

We substitute u =

x, so that u

2 = x and 2udu = dx and obtain

e

u

u

2 udu =

2 e

u du = 2e

u

  • C = 2e

√ x

  • C
  1. Evaluate the following indefinite integrals. Clearly indicate which methods you apply.

(a) (3 points) ∫ x + 1

x^2 − 2 x + 2

dx

Answer

If we complete the square on the denominator we get x

2 − 2 x + 2 = (x − 1)

2

  • 1, so we

substitute u = x − 1, so that x = u + 1 and dx = du. We get

u + 2

u^2 + 1

du =

u

u^2 + 1

du + 2

u^2 + 1

du =

ln |u

2

  • 1| + 2 arctan(u) + C

Rewriting in terms of x gives:

ln |x

2 − 2 x + 2| + 2 arctan(x − 1) + C

(b) (3 points) ∫ x

cos^2 (x)

dx

Answer

Since

d dx

tan x =

1 cos^2 (x)

we can write:

x

cos^2 (x)

dx =

xd(tan x) = x(tan x) −

tan(x)dx

We have

tan(x)dx =

sin(x)

cos(x)

dx =

cos x

d(cos(x)) = − ln | cos x| + C,

so the whole answer is:

∫ x

cos^2 (x)

dx = x(tan x) + ln | cos x| + C

  1. (2 points) We approximate the value of an integral

∫ (^) b

a

f (x)dx using the midpoint rule Mn and

using Simpson’s rule Sn. Suppose we have computed that for n = 10 we have ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣

∫ (^) b

a

f (x)dx − M 10

− 1 and

∫ (^) b

a

f (x)dx − S 10

− 1 .

(a) (1 point) How big should we take n to make sure that

∫ (^) b

a

f (x)dx − Mn

∣ ≤^10

− 5 ? Explain.

Answer

The error bound for the midpoint rule is of the form

∫ (^) b

a

f (x)dx − Mn

≤ CM /n

2

where CM is some constant depending on the behaviour of f

′′ (x) for a ≤ x ≤ b but not on

n. It is given we can take CM / 10

2 = 10

− 1 , so CM = 10.

In order to have CM /n

2 ≤ 10

− 5 we need n

2 ≥ 10

6 , so choosing n = 1000 should do the

trick.

(b) (1 point) How big should we take n to make sure that

∫ (^) b

a

f (x)dx − Sn

∣ ≤^10

− 5 ? Explain.

Answer

The error bound for Simpson’s rule is of the form

∫ (^) b

a

f (x)dx − Mn

≤ CS /n

4

where CS is some constant depending on the behaviour of f

′′′′ (x) for a ≤ x ≤ b but not on

n. It is given we can take CS / 10

4 = 10

− 1 , so CS = 1000.

Solving CM /n

4 ≤ 10

− 5 shows we should have n

4 ≥ 10

8 , so n = 100 should do.

  1. (3 points) Evaluate the following definite integral. Clearly indicate your methods.

− 1

ln(x

2 )dx

Answer

Since ln(x

2 ) has an asymptote at x = 0, this is an improper integral, which we will compute by

− 1

ln(x

2 )dx =

− 1

ln(x

2 )dx +

0

ln(x

2 )dx.

We have (^) ∫ 1

0

ln(x

2 )dx = lim h→0+

h

ln(x

2 )dx.

By partial integration we have

h

ln(x

2 )dx = [x ln(x

2 )]

1 h −

h

xd(ln x

2 ) = (1· 0 −h ln(h

2 ))−

h

x

x^2

· 2 xdx = − 2 h ln(h)−2(1−h).

In order to compute

lim h→0+

h ln(h),

we substitute h = 1/y and let y → ∞. We then get

lim y→∞

− ln(y)

y

which via de l’Hˆopital, converges to 0. Therefore,

lim h→0+

− 2 h ln(h) − 2(1 − h) = − 2

and we see that (^) ∫ 1

0

ln(x

2 )dx = − 2.

Since ln(x

2 ) is an even function, we have

∫ (^) −h

− 1

ln(x

2 )dx =

h

ln(x

2 )dx

so the other improper integral converges to −2 as well. Adding together yields

− 1

ln(x

2 )dx = − 4.