Microbiology Board Review Notes, Exams of Nursing

A review of microbiology concepts including eukaryotes, prokaryotes, organism classification, virus families, complement system, inclusion bodies, immune terms, and lab tests. It includes fill-in-the-blank questions and pneumonic devices to aid in memorization. useful for students studying microbiology or preparing for board exams.

Typology: Exams

2022/2023

Available from 07/17/2023

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Irene Gold Microbiology Board Review
Eukaryotes - Answer________________ = true nucleus, organelles. E.g human cells, Protozoa like Giardia
and amoeba
Prokaryotes - Answer______________ = no true nucleus, no organelles (e.g. No mitochondria) E.g.
Bacteria
Family and genus - AnswerHow are organisms classified/organized?
genus and species - AnswerHow are oraganisms named?
Kingdom Phylum Class Order Family Genus Species - a way to organize organisms - AnswerThe
pneumonic "King Paul Can Only Find Good Spices" stands for what and means what?
Gram positive - AnswerGram positive or gram negative
Shape of cell = cocci
Family = micrococcaccae
Genus = micrococcus, staphylococcus
Gram positive - AnswerGram positive or gram negative
Shape of cell = cocci
Family = streptococcaccae
Genus = streptococcus, enterococcus
Gram positive - AnswerGram positive or gram negative
Shape of cell = bacilli
Family = bacillaccae (spore formers)
Genus = bacillus, clostridium-ANAEROBIC
Gram positive - AnswerGram positive or gram negative
Shape of cell = bacilli
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Eukaryotes - Answer________________ = true nucleus, organelles. E.g human cells, Protozoa like Giardia and amoeba Prokaryotes - Answer______________ = no true nucleus, no organelles (e.g. No mitochondria) E.g. Bacteria Family and genus - AnswerHow are organisms classified/organized? genus and species - AnswerHow are oraganisms named? Kingdom Phylum Class Order Family Genus Species - a way to organize organisms - AnswerThe pneumonic "King Paul Can Only Find Good Spices" stands for what and means what? Gram positive - AnswerGram positive or gram negative Shape of cell = cocci Family = micrococcaccae Genus = micrococcus, staphylococcus Gram positive - AnswerGram positive or gram negative Shape of cell = cocci Family = streptococcaccae Genus = streptococcus, enterococcus Gram positive - AnswerGram positive or gram negative Shape of cell = bacilli Family = bacillaccae (spore formers) Genus = bacillus, clostridium-ANAEROBIC Gram positive - AnswerGram positive or gram negative Shape of cell = bacilli

Family = lactobacillacae Genus = lactobacillus Gram negative - AnswerGram positive or gram negative Shape of cell = cocci Family = neisseriaccae Genus = neisseria Gram negative - AnswerGram positive or Gram negative Shape of cell = bacilli Family = enterobacterioccae, vibrianaccae, spirillaccae, pseudomonadacceae, pasteurellaceae, bacteroidosceae Genus = eneterbacter, escherichia, klebsiella, proteus, salmonella, serratia, shigella, yersina, vibrio, campylobocter, pseudomonas, bacteroides=anaerobic Adenoviridae - AnswerWhat is the virus family of the DNA human virus Adenovirus Papillomaviridae - AnswerWhat is the virus family of the DNA human virus papillomavirus Herpesviridae - AnswerWhat is the virus family of the DNA human virus' herpes simplex virus, varicella- zoster virus, cytomegalovirus, and Epstein Barr Virus? Poxviridae - AnswerWhat is the virus family of the DNA human virus' smallpox, vaccinia virus, molluscum contagiosum virus? Hepadnaviridae - AnswerWhat is the virus family for the DNA human virus hepatitis B? Paramyxoviridae - AnswerWhat is the virus family for the RNA human viruses measles, mumps, respiratory syncytial virus?

I - AnswerInterleukin ________ = lymphocyte activating factor, made by macrophages, and for brain and nervous tissue II - AnswerInterleukin _______ = T-cell growth factor, made by CD4 cells, (CD4 = T-helper cell "quarterback of immune system" and directs response of immune system) III - AnswerInterleukin ________ = made by big bone marrow and in blood and lymphatic system major histocompatibility complex (MHC) - Answer_______________________ act as a post on surface (self vs non-self), involved with tissue graft reflection and organ rejection. MHC I -- MHC I&II - AnswerT-cells recognize ____________ B-Cells recognize _____________ Positive -- negative - AnswerThere are only 6 gram ______ and the rest are gram _______. Bacillus, Listeria monocytogenes, Clostridium, Corynebacterium diphtheria, Staph, Strep Pneumonic = BLCCSS (blocks) - AnswerList all the gram positive organisms. "BLCCSS" Staph aureus - Answer__________________ produces alpha toxin aka alpha hemolysin Scalded Skin Syndrome, Toxic Shock, Osteomyelitis, Impetigo, Carbuncles - AnswerList the 5 disease caused by Staph Aureus. "STOIC" Impetigo - AnswerWhich disease caused by staph aureus is an infection of child, around the mouth, with a "honey crusted" lesion around the mouth? strep pyogenes - Answer_____________ = Group A Lancefield, Beta Hemolytic

Strep throat, Erysipelas, Rheumatic Fever, Glomerulonephritis, Impetigo, Scarlet Fever - AnswerWhat are the 6 diseases of strep pyogenes? "SERGIS" Erysipelas - Answer___________________ is a strep pyogene disease, AKA "Saint Anthony's Fire", and is a superficial form of cellulitis Enhances phagocytosis or cellular lysis - AnswerWhat is the purpose of the complement system? C3B - AnswerThe Classical (Ag-Ab) and Alternate (e.g. Sheep RBC's) complement system pathways meet at _________ Membrane attack complex - AnswerC5b-C9 complement pathway =

  1. Aschoff
  2. Babes Ernst granules
  3. Councilman cells
  4. Downey cell
  5. Epithelioid hystiocyte
  6. Gohn complex
  7. Guarneri bodies
  8. Gummas
  9. Koplik spots
  10. Lipfuscin
  11. Levy bodies
  12. Mallory bodies
  13. Negri Bodies
  14. Reed sternberg
  15. Russell bodies - AnswerInclusion Bodies: (bodies present in nucleus or cytoplasm of certain cells in infection by filterable viruses) Fill in the Blank:
  • breastfeeding - IgA Artificial passive immunity - Answer__________________ = injection of preformed antibodies (e.g. Tetanus Antitoxin = pre made antibody attacks circulating toxins, not bound toxins)
  1. Antitoxin
  2. Endotoxins
  3. Entertoxin
  4. Exotoxins
  5. Fomite
  6. Hapten
  7. Neurotoxin
  8. Opsonin
  9. Prion
  10. Toxoid - AnswerFill in the blank for the Immune Terms:
  11. _______________ = antibody against a toxin (artificial passive immunity). Purified antiserum from animals
  12. _______________ = toxin from lipopolysaccharide layer of cell. Heat Stable. Gram negative have these
  13. _______________ = toxin that affect the intestines. E.g. Lipopolysaccharides can be these
  14. _______________ = toxin outside the cell from cell waste products, Heat Labile. COOK YOUR FOOD
  15. _______________ = inanimate object is vector
  16. _______________ = partial antigen or half antigen. Does not stimulate immune response
  17. _______________ = toxin that affects the nervous system. e.g. Botulism, tetanus
  18. _______________ = enhance phagocytosis (marks target for strike)
  19. _______________ = acellular protein which denatures other proteins. Cannot be autoclave
  20. ______________ = inactivated toxin (active artificial immunity) Choices: Neurotoxin, endotoxin, exotoxin, enterotoxin, hapten, prion, fomite, antitoxin, toxoid, opsonin

Lungs - AnswerAnything ending in "osis" is usually acquired or transmitted via the _____________ (e.g. Pneumoconiosis, Blastomycosis, Tuberculosis) Type I - Anaphylactic (immediate) Type II - Cytotoxic Type III - Immune-complex mediated Type IV - Delayed Hypersensitivity - AnswerThe pneumonic ACID for hypersensitivity reactions means what? Type I - Answer_________ hypersensitivity = anaphylactic (immediate) around 15-30 minutes, examples are bronchial asthma (allergy), Bee Sting, Hay fever, and cells involved are IgE, mast cell, and basophils Type II - Answer__________ hypersensitivity = cytotoxic, responds minutes to hours, examples are Goodpasteur's, Erythroblastosis fetalis, blood transfusions, myasthenia gravis, and Grave's Ds. Cells involved are IgG. Targets cell for phagocytosis. 2 things, antigen + antibody involved. Type III - Answer___________ hypersensitivity = immune complex mediated, responds 3-10 hours, examples are glomerulonephritis, lupus, RA, arthus reaction (local necrosis), and serum sickness. Cells involved are IgG and complement. 3 things: antigen + antibody + complement involved. Type IV - Answer____________ hypersensitivity = Delayed Hypersensitivity, responds ~48hours, examples are tuberculosis, contact dermatitis (poison ivy, poison oak), transplant rejection via MHC. Cell involved are T-Cell and lymphocytes

  1. Facultative aerobe
  2. Facultative an aerobe
  3. Heterotroph
  4. Parasite
  5. Microaerophilic
  6. Obligate aerobe
  7. Obligate a aerobe
  8. Zoonosis

______________ = "around" - flagella everywhere Ames test - Answer___________________ lab test = carcinogenicity, mutagenicity. Uses Salmonella Typhimurium Ascholi test - Answer________________ lab test for anthrax ASO titer - Answer_______________ lab test = antistreptolysin O Titre. Test Strep pyogenes antibodies. Rheumatic fever Babcock test - Answer__________________ lab test = % of butterfat in milk Bile solubility - Answer___________________ lab tests - Pneumococci vs. alpha hemolytic strep viridans BOD (biological oxygen demand) - AnswerWhich lab test is best for water pollution? Chocolate agar - Answer_________________ lab test - AKA Thayer Martin Agar, aka heated blood Agar). FOR gonorrhea Colliform - AnswerWhich lab test checks for E. Coli in water purification. Fecal contamination in water Coombs - AnswerWhich lab test, tests RBC antigens, Hemolytic anemia, erythroblastosis fetalis, and Rh factor? Tzank test - Answer__________________ lab test = look for altered epitheloid cells Herpes Zoster & Simplex, also Varicella Holding/batch method -- flash continuous, ultrahigh, sterilization/Autoclave - AnswerPasteurization methods ________________ = temp is 145 F/~56 C, time is 30 min ________________ = temp is 161 F / ~65 C, time is 15 sec

________________ = temp is 191 F / ~80 C, time is 2-5 sec ________________ = temp is 274 F / ~121 C, time is 15 min Sterilization/autoclave - Answer_________________ = steam heat under pressure. Denatures membranes and is ineffective against prions. Blue/green -- red -- white -- yellow -- yellow/green - AnswerThe color of Pus (purulent) _____________ = pseudomonas aeruginos. Open burn infection. Unsanitized hot tub _____________ = serratia marcenscens _____________ = chlamydia _____________ = staph aureus _____________ = gonorrhea

  1. Formaldehyde
  2. Iodine
  3. Silver nitrate
  4. Penicillin
  5. Streptomycin
  6. Sulfa
  7. Tetracycline - AnswerDrugs
  8. _____________ = fix gross specimens
  9. ____________ = pre-op disinfectant
  10. ____________ = was used for newborns eyes but no longer used and erythromycin is used instead
  11. ____________ = for gram positive, inhibits cell wall synthesis
  12. ____________ = for gram negative, inhibits protein synthesis
  13. ____________ = for gram negative, competes with PABA
  14. ____________ = for gram negative and positive, inhibits synthesis. Turns teeth gray or yellow brown

Gram stain - AnswerWhich stain categorizes based on cell wall (Gram + vs. Gram -) Primary stain -- fixer -- decolorizer -- counterstrain - AnswerGram stain procedures: ______________ = crystal violet or methylene blue (Gram positive stains purple/blue) ______________ = iodine --> "Mordant" ______________ = acetone or Ethyl alcohol (alcohol wash). Removes crystal violet from thin walled (gram -) organisms ______________ = saffarin (red/pink color goes into Gram - organisms) Conjugation -- transduction -- transformation - AnswerCell sex of life: _____________ = plasmid DNA transfer via sex pilus. Bestows antimicrobial resistance _____________ = bacteriophage (altered virus) transfers genetic material b/w bacteria _____________ = direct uptake of free DNA Center for Disease Control (CDC) - AnswerWhich governmental agency is not for research, complies morbidity and epidemiological statistics? Environmental protection agency (EPA) - AnswerWhich governmental agency monitors soil, air, and water quality? Food and Drug Administration (FDA) - AnswerWhich governmental agency regulates health products released to public? National institute of Health (NIH) - AnswerWhich governmental agency is for RESEARCH, not statistics?

  1. Emerging
  2. Endemic
  3. Epidemic
  4. Etiology
  1. Incidence
  2. Pandemic
  3. Prevalence - AnswerPopulation terminology:
  4. ____________________ = new disease or rapid increase of a disease in incidence or in geographic range
  5. ___________________ = small number of cases in specific location. Present all the time
  6. ___________________ = rapidly affects many persons in a certain area within a few days or weeks
  7. ___________________ = study of the cause of disease
  8. ___________________ = # of New cases in given time period. E.g. How many new cases last year?
  9. ___________________ = more than expected # of cases of a disease worldwide
  10. ___________________ = Total # of cases at particular point in time? E.g. Total cases right now Congenital malformations and prematurity - AnswerWhat is the leading causes of death in infants? Heart disease, cancer, and stroke - AnswerWhat is the leading causes of death in adults in the US? Tuberculosis and malaria - AnswerWhat is the leading causes of death worldwide? Ascaris lumbricoides - Answer_____________________ = roundworm. Colicky pain, lives in small intestine. Most common roundworm in the world. Aspergillosus fumigatus - Answer_____________________ = in nuts and grains, makes Aflatoxin. Primary liver cancer. Fungus ball in lung Bacillus anthracis - Answer_____________________ = anthrax, woolsorters disease, inhaled spores, sporulation Blastomycosis - Answer__________________ = endemic fungus on eastern seaboard from Florida to Canada

Enterobius vermicularis - Answer______________ = Pinworm. Scotch tape or "anal cellphone" test, itching. Epstein-Barr virus - Answer_______________ = infectious mono. Downey cells Francisella tularensis - Answer_______________ = Tularemia, rabbit fever. Hunters may get this Giardia lamblia - Answer_________________ = mucous diarrhea, especially seen in AIDs patients Haemophilus aegyptius - Answer________________ = pink eye. Very contagious conjunctivitis. AKA "Koch-weeks bacillus" Haemophilus ducreyi - Answer______________ = chancroid. Soft painful chancroid Helicobacter pylori - Answer_______________ = stomach ulcers, UREASE positive Herpes simplex - Answer_______________ = fever blister. Type 1 is above belt, type 2 is below belt (Genital warts) Herpes zoster - Answer_______________ = shingles. Does not cross midline. Along dermatologist. Hides in DRG Histoplasmosis - Answer_________________ = Ohio/Mississippi valley fever. Calcific lesions in lung similar to TB HTLV-III virus - Answer_________________ = AIDS, HIV virus Klebsiella pneumonia - Answer_________________ = red current jelly sputum Legionella pneumophila - Answer________________ = legionnaire's disease from contaminated ventilation water droplets. "Pontiac Fever" = mild form of Legionnaire's disease

Leishmania Donovani - Answer______________ = Kala-Azar. Viscerotropic. Sand fly vector Leptospira icterohemorgagiae - Answer______________ = Weil's disease. Hemorrhagic jaundice. AKA "Leptospira interrogans" Loa Loa - Answer_____________ = River eye worm (African eye worm). Vector = files. In Africa Listeria monocytogenes - Answer_____________ = Listeria. Deli meats and soft cheeses Molluscum contagiosum - Answer_____________ = pink cauliflower lesion on female genitalia Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Answer_______________ = tuberculosis. Acid Fast (+) Mycobacterium leprae - Answer________________ = Leprosy = Hansen's disease. Acid fast (+). Destroys sensory nerves and skin Mycoplasma pneumonia - Answer_______________ = #1 cause atypical pneumonia. AKA "walking pneumonia". Penicillin ineffective b/c mycoplasm lack cell wall. Necator americanus - Answer_______________ = Hookworm. Most common hookworm in US Neisseria gonorrhoeae - Answer________________ = #1 PID/Salpingitis. Gr-Diplococcus. Chocolate agar. Coffee bean shape Neisseria meningitidis - Answer________________ = Miningitis. Only meningitis to get a rash. Can be fatel onchocerciasis volvulus - Answer_______________ = river blindness. Vector = flies. In Africa

Prions - Answer________________ = Acellular protein particles. Causes Mad Cow, Bovine Spongiform Encephalitis (BSE), Creutzfield Jacob's Disease (CJD), Scrapie (sheep), Kuru (New Guinea). Discovered by Stanley Pyusner Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Answer________________ = open burn infection. Blue/green pus. Most common cause of pneumonia in cystic fibrosis. Found in hot/warm & moist places, e.g. Contact lenses and hot tubs Respiratory syncytial virus - Answer_______________ = "RSV". Cause Croup and bronchiolitis. Most common respiratory infection in kids Rubella - Answer_______________ = German Measles. 3-day measles. Mild fever. Congenital rubella syndrome Rubeola - Answer_______________ = (Red) measles. Koplik (white/blue) spots on buccal mucosa. High fever. 3 Cs (coryza, conjunctivitis, cough). Atypical measles causes subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) Salmonella enteriditis - Answer_________________ = salmonella food poisoning. Heat labile Serratia marcescens - Answer______________ = red pus Shigella - Answer____________ = bacillary dysentery Sidomegalic paramyxoid virus - Answer________________ = mumps. Parotiditis --> LMN CN7. Sequelae = oophritis, orchitis Sporotherix schenckii - Answer________________ = rose bush thorns, gardeners at risk streptococcus mutans - Answer_______________ = gamma hemolytic strep. Dental caries

Streptococcus pyogenes - Answer_______________ = Beta Hemolytic strep. Group A Lancefield. Catalase(-). Pneumonic = SERGIS. Strep throat, Erysipelas, Rheumatic fever, Glomerulonephritis, Impetigo, Scarlet fever. Jones major criteria for rheumatic fever. Aschoff bodies on cardiac valves from rheumatic fever Streptococcus pneumoniae - Answer________________ = alpha hemolytic strep. M/c cause of typical Pneumonia Streptococcus viridans - Answer______________ = alpha hemolytic strep. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) Taenia saginata - Answer______________ = beef tapeworm Toxoplasma gondii - Answer______________ = toxoplasmosis (vector = cat feces) Treponema pallidum - Answer______________ = syphilis. Hard painless chancre. 3 stages Treponema pertenue - Answer______________ = Yaws, non-venersal syph Trichinella spiralis - Answer________________ = Trichinosis. Diagnosed off X-ray and biopsy Trypanosoma gambiense - Answer_______________ = African sleeping sickness Vaccinia - Answer________________ = cow pox Varicella - Answer________________ = chicken pox. Maculopapularvesicular rash = Red, elevated and fluid-filled Variola - Answer_________________ = small pox. Guarneri bodies