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Question 1. Which installation option provides the smallest footprint and is managed primarily via PowerShell? A) Server Core B) Desktop Experience C) Nano Server D) Windows Server Essentials Answer: C Explanation: Nano Server is a headless, remotely managed deployment with a minimal footprint, administered mainly through PowerShell and remote tools. Question 2. When should you choose GPT over MBR for a new disk in Windows Server 2016? A) Disk size is less than 2 TB B) You need more than four primary partitions C) The server will boot using BIOS firmware only D) The disk will be used exclusively for legacy applications Answer: B Explanation: GPT supports up to 128 primary partitions and is required for disks larger than 2 TB, unlike MBR which is limited to four primary partitions. Question 3. Which feature enables block-level deduplication of VHDX files on a Windows Server volume? A) Storage Spaces Direct
B) Data Deduplication C) ReFS integrity streams D) File Server Resource Manager Answer: B Explanation: Data Deduplication analyzes and removes duplicate data blocks on supported volumes, including VHDX files, to save storage space. Question 4. In Hyper‑V, which type of virtual switch provides isolation from the physical network while allowing VM‑to‑VM communication? A) External virtual switch B) Internal virtual switch C) Private virtual switch D) NAT virtual switch Answer: C Explanation: A private virtual switch isolates VMs from the host and physical network, permitting only communication among VMs attached to that switch. Question 5. What is the purpose of the “-Enable‑NestedVirtualization” PowerShell switch when creating a Hyper‑V VM? A) Allows the VM to run virtual machines itself B) Enables Hyper‑V replication for the VM C) Provides a virtual GPU to the VM D) Configures the VM for high‑availability clustering
Question 8. In a failover cluster, which role provides load‑balancing and fault tolerance for web traffic? A) Cluster Shared Volume B) Network Load Balancing (NLB) C) Storage Replica D) Hyper‑V Replica Answer: B Explanation: NLB is a cluster role that distributes incoming traffic across multiple nodes, offering load balancing and high availability for web services. Question 9. What is the primary benefit of Storage Replica’s synchronous mode? A) Faster replication over long distances B) Zero data loss in the event of a site failure C) Reduced network bandwidth usage D) Ability to replicate to non‑Windows servers Answer: B Explanation: Synchronous replication ensures that writes are committed at both source and destination before completion, guaranteeing zero data loss. Question 10. Which backup tool is built into Windows Server and can back up both system state and volumes?
A) System Center Data Protection Manager B) Windows Server Backup C) Azure Backup Server D) File History Answer: B Explanation: Windows Server Backup is the native backup solution that supports full server, system state, and volume-level backups. Question 11. Which DNS zone type contains only a copy of the data from another DNS server? A) Primary zone B) Secondary zone C) Stub zone D) Active Directory‑integrated zone Answer: B Explanation: A secondary zone is a read‑only copy of a primary zone, obtained via zone transfers. Question 12. What does DNSSEC protect against? A) Denial‑of‑service attacks B) Cache poisoning and spoofing C) Unauthorized zone transfers
Question 15. Which IPAM feature can automatically discover and inventory DHCP and DNS servers? A) IP Address Block Allocation B) Server Discovery C) DNS Policy Management D) DHCP Failover Configuration Answer: B Explanation: IP Address Management (IPAM) includes Server Discovery to locate and inventory DHCP/DNS servers in the environment. Question 16. Which VPN protocol uses SSL/TLS over TCP port 443 for client connections? A) IKEv B) SSTP C) L2TP/IPsec D) PPTP Answer: B Explanation: Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) encapsulates PPP traffic over an SSL/TLS channel using TCP 443. Question 17. What is the purpose of DirectAccess in Windows Server? A) Provide site‑to‑site VPN tunnels
B) Enable always‑on remote access without VPN C) Secure wireless LAN authentication D) Manage network policies centrally Answer: B Explanation: DirectAccess allows domain‑joined computers to connect to corporate resources automatically without a traditional VPN. Question 18. Which NPS extension is required to enforce Network Access Protection (NAP) compliance? A) Health Registration Authority (HRA) B) Connection Request Policy (CRP) C) Health Policy Server (HPS) D) NPS Extension for Health Policies Answer: D Explanation: The NPS Extension for Health Policies evaluates client health compliance and enforces NAP requirements. Question 19. DFS Namespaces allow you to: A) Replicate entire volumes across sites automatically B) Create a unified folder hierarchy that aggregates multiple shared folders C) Store files in the cloud only D) Provide load balancing for web traffic
Question 22. Which role must be installed before you can promote a server to an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain controller? A) DNS Server B) File Services C) DHCP Server D) Hyper‑V Answer: A Explanation: While not strictly required, a DNS server is a prerequisite for AD DS because domain controllers register SRV records in DNS for domain functionality. Question 23. What is the primary function of a Read‑Only Domain Controller (RODC)? A) Provide write‑able replica of the AD database in remote locations B) Serve authentication requests without storing password hashes locally C) Host the FSMO roles permanently D) Perform schema updates automatically Answer: B Explanation: An RODC holds a read‑only copy of AD and caches credentials after successful authentication, enhancing security in untrusted sites. Question 24. Which FSMO role is responsible for processing schema changes?
A) PDC Emulator B) RID Master C) Infrastructure Master D) Schema Master Answer: D Explanation: The Schema Master controls all updates to the Active Directory schema. Question 25. Which AD DS feature allows you to recover accidentally deleted objects without a backup? A) AD Recycle Bin B) System State Restore C) Authoritative Restore D) Volume Shadow Copy Answer: A Explanation: Enabling the AD Recycle Bin permits restoration of deleted objects directly from AD. Question 26. Group Policy Preferences can be used to deploy which of the following? A) Software installation only B) Drive mappings, printers, and scheduled tasks C) Security filtering exclusively
Explanation: The Web Server template includes Server Authentication EKU, making it suitable for HTTPS and other server roles. Question 29. What does a Certificate Revocation List (CRL) contain? A) Expiration dates of all issued certificates B) Serial numbers of certificates that have been revoked C) Private keys for compromised certificates D) Templates for future certificate requests Answer: B Explanation: A CRL lists the serial numbers of certificates that are no longer trusted. Question 30. Which component of AD FS provides the external-facing endpoint for federated authentication? A) Web Application Proxy (WAP) B) Federation Server Proxy C) Claims Provider Trust D) Token‑Signing Certificate Answer: A Explanation: WAP publishes AD FS services to external clients, acting as a reverse proxy.
Question 31. Dynamic Access Control (DAC) primarily uses which attribute to evaluate access? A) User’s SID B) File’s NTFS permissions only C) Claims and resource properties D) Group Memberships only Answer: C Explanation: DAC evaluates claims (user attributes) and resource properties (e.g., classification) to enforce conditional access. Question 32. Which PowerShell cmdlet installs the Hyper‑V role on a Server Core installation? A) Install‑WindowsFeature – Name Hyper‑V – IncludeManagementTools B) Enable‑HyperV – All C) Add‑Feature – FeatureName Hyper‑V D) New‑VM – Name “Host” – Generation 2 Answer: A Explanation: Install‑WindowsFeature installs server roles; the – IncludeManagementTools parameter adds the management console. Question 33. When configuring Storage Spaces Direct, which network requirement is mandatory? A) 10 GbE RDMA‑capable network
Answer: B Explanation: Hyper‑V stores VM configuration files in %ProgramData%\Microsoft\Windows\Hyper‑V by default. Question 36. Which PowerShell command creates a new storage pool named “Pool01” using all available physical disks? A) New‑StoragePool – FriendlyName “Pool01” – PhysicalDisks (Get‑PhysicalDisk) B) Add‑Disk – PoolName “Pool01” – All C) New‑DiskPool – Name “Pool01” – Disks (Get‑Disk) D) Initialize‑Storage – Pool “Pool01” – AllDisks Answer: A Explanation: New‑StoragePool creates a storage pool; passing (Get‑PhysicalDisk) selects all available physical disks. Question 37. Which Hyper‑V feature allows live migration of a VM without shared storage? A) Storage Migration B) Live Migration with SMB 3.0 file shares C) Hyper‑V Replica D) VM Checkpoint Answer: B Explanation: Live Migration using SMB 3.0 enables moving a running VM to another host without needing shared storage.
Question 38. In Docker on Windows Server, which command pulls an image from Docker Hub? A) docker download microsoft/windowsservercore B) docker get image microsoft/windowsservercore C) docker pull microsoft/windowsservercore D) docker import microsoft/windowsservercore Answer: C Explanation: docker pull retrieves an image from a registry such as Docker Hub. Question 39. Which DNS record type maps a domain name to an IPv address? A) A record B) AAAA record C) CNAME record D) PTR record Answer: B Explanation: AAAA records store IPv6 address mappings for a hostname. Question 40. What does the DNS “Forward Lookup Zone” contain? A) Mappings from IP addresses to hostnames B) Mappings from hostnames to IP addresses
Explanation: A subnet in IPAM represents a contiguous block of IP addresses allocated for a site or network segment. Question 43. Which Windows Server feature enables users to authenticate to cloud resources using their on‑premises AD credentials? A) AD CS B) AD FS C) DirectAccess D) Windows Server Backup Answer: B Explanation: AD FS provides federated authentication, allowing on‑premises AD credentials to be used for cloud services. Question 44. What is the purpose of a “Read‑Only Domain Controller” in a branch office? A) To host the Global Catalog exclusively B) To reduce replication traffic while providing authentication services C) To act as a DNS forwarder only D) To hold FSMO roles for the branch Answer: B Explanation: An RODC offers local authentication with a read‑only AD copy, minimizing replication bandwidth and enhancing security.
Question 45. Which PowerShell cmdlet restores a previously deleted AD object from the Recycle Bin? A) Restore‑ADObject – Identity B) Undo‑ADDeletion – ObjectID C) Restore‑DeletedObject – ObjectGUID D) Enable‑ADRecycleBin – Identity Answer: A Explanation: Restore‑ADObject restores a deleted object using its unique identifier. Question 46. Which GPO setting can enforce a minimum password length of 12 characters? A) Computer Configuration → Policies → Windows Settings → Security Settings → Account Policies → Password Policy → Minimum password length B) User Configuration → Policies → Administrative Templates → System → Password Policy → Minimum length C) Computer Configuration → Policies → Administrative Templates → System → Password Policy → Minimum length D) User Configuration → Policies → Windows Settings → Security Settings → Account Policies → Password Policy → Minimum password length Answer: A Explanation: The password length setting resides under Computer Configuration → Windows Settings → Security Settings → Account Policies.
