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Question 1. Which agency is primarily responsible for establishing the data standards used in MILSTRIP? A) General Services Administration (GSA) B) Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) C) Department of Defense (DoD) Headquarters D) Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) Answer: B Explanation: The DLA develops and maintains the MILSTRIP data standards, ensuring uniformity across DoD logistics transactions. Question 2. In the 80‑column requisition format, the Document Identifier Code (DIC) “A0A” indicates what type of transaction? A) Purchase order issuance B) Issue of material from a supply activity C) Requisition for repair parts D) Cancellation of a requisition Answer: B Explanation: DIC “A0A” is the standard code for a material issue transaction, signaling that the source of supply is releasing items. Question 3. What does the Routing Identifier Code (RIC) primarily convey? A) The type of material being requested B) The fiscal year of the transaction C) The origin and destination activities in the supply chain D) The priority level of the request Answer: C Explanation: RIC identifies both the “From” (issuing) and “To” (receiving) activities, enabling proper routing of the requisition. Question 4. Which Media and Status (M&S) code is used when a requisition is transmitted electronically via DAAS?
A) 01 – Paper B) 02 – Fax C) 03 – Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) D) 04 – Voice Answer: C Explanation: M&S code “03” designates electronic transmission, such as the DAAS (Defense Automatic Addressing System) network. Question 5. A National Stock Number (NSN) is composed of which two major components? A) Federal Supply Class (FSC) and Manufacturer Code B) FSC and National Item Identification Number (NIIN) C) NIIN and Unit of Issue (UI) D) Service Code and Julian Date Answer: B Explanation: The NSN consists of the four‑digit FSC followed by the nine‑digit NIIN, uniquely identifying a stocked item. Question 6. In the 80‑column format, the Unit of Issue (UI) “DZ” represents which quantity? A) One item B) Twelve items C) Twenty‑four items D) Thirty‑six items Answer: C Explanation: “DZ” stands for a dozen dozens, which equals 24 units. Question 7. Which field in the Document Control Number (DCN) indicates the activity that originated the transaction? A) Service Code B) UIC/DoDAAC C) Julian Date
Answer: B Explanation: PD is formed by concatenating the F/AD (identifying the force) with the UND (indicating urgency) to create a two‑character priority code. Question 11. In the Required Delivery Date (RDD) field, what does the special code “999” signify? A) Immediate delivery required B) Delivery on the last day of the month C) No specific delivery date required D) Delivery within 999 days Answer: C Explanation: “999” is used when the requester does not require a specific delivery date, allowing the source of supply to schedule as feasible. Question 12. Advice Code “5G” instructs the source of supply to perform which action? A) Provide a one‑for‑one exchange of the item B) Hold the item for future use C) Expedite the shipment without cost D) Cancel the requisition Answer: A Explanation: “5G” signals a one‑for‑one exchange, typically used when the original item is defective and a replacement is needed. Question 13. Which of the following is a valid electronic transmission method for a MILSTRIP requisition? A) DD Form 1348‑1A mailed by USPS B) Direct entry into the Defense Logistics Management Standards (DLMS) system via DAAS C) Fax to the supply activity’s main office D) Hand‑carried paper copy to the supply point Answer: B
Explanation: Electronic transmission through DAAS directly into DLMS is the approved method for rapid, error‑free requisitions. Question 14. During the requisition life cycle, which step validates the availability of the requested item at the source of supply? A) Initiation B) Transmission C) Source of Supply (SoS) editing and validation D) Receipt acknowledgment Answer: C Explanation: SoS editing checks the item’s availability, pricing, and allocation before the requisition proceeds. Question 15. Pre‑positioned War Reserve Materiel (PWRM) is primarily used for which purpose? A) Routine training supplies B) Immediate deployment of combat‑essential items C) Office stationery D) Civilian humanitarian aid Answer: B Explanation: PWRM stocks are positioned to support rapid deployment of critical warfighting materiel. Question 16. A Materiel Release Order (MRO) directs a storage activity to do what? A) Cancel an existing requisition B) Release a specific quantity of an item to a requesting activity C) Transfer ownership of the item to a contractor D) Update the item’s NSN Answer: B Explanation: MROs are orders from a higher authority to a storage activity to release material to meet a requisition.
C) After receipt but before inventory posting D) At any time, regardless of shipment status Answer: A Explanation: “AC1” cancels a requisition only if the source has not yet released or shipped the material. Question 21. The Transportation Control Number (TCN) is found in which part of the MILSTRIP transaction? A) Document Identifier Code (DIC) field B) Shipment Status (DIC AS_) segment C) Priority Designator (PD) field D) Advice Code field Answer: B Explanation: The TCN appears in the shipment status segment (DIC AS_) to track the movement of the shipment. Question 22. Which DIC is used to acknowledge receipt of material by the requesting activity? A) DRA B) DRB C) DRA/DRB (both) D) DRC Answer: C Explanation: DIC “DRA” (Material Receipt Acknowledgment) and “DRB” (Material Receipt – Backlog) are used to confirm receipt; both are acceptable for acknowledgment. Question 23. SF 364 is the form used for reporting which type of discrepancy? A) Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) B) Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR) C) Materiel Release Order (MRO) D) Pre‑positioned War Reserve Materiel request Answer: B
Explanation: SF 364 is the standard Supply Discrepancy Report used to document shipping, packaging, or quantity errors. Question 24. When a defective new item is discovered, which form must be completed? A) SF 364 B) SF 368 C) DD Form 1348‑1A D) DD Form 1300‑ 1 Answer: B Explanation: SF 368 is the Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) for reporting defective new material. Question 25. “Warehouse Refusals” refer to what situation? A) The receiving activity refuses to accept material due to lack of space B) The source of supply refuses to ship because of funding issues C) The inventory system automatically rejects duplicate NSNs D) The material is returned to the supplier for repair Answer: A Explanation: Warehouse refusals occur when the receiving warehouse cannot accept the shipment, often due to storage constraints or condition issues. Question 26. MILSTRAP is an acronym for what? A) Military Standard Transaction Reporting and Accountability Procedures B) Military Integrated Logistics System Technical Reporting Application Platform C) Management of Inventory Logistics System Transactional Reporting and Accountability Program D) Maintenance and Inspection Logistics Standard Transactional Reporting Application Answer: A Explanation: MILSTRAP stands for Military Standard Transaction Reporting and Accountability Procedures, governing transaction tracking.
C) Civilian agencies purchasing from DLA D) Foreign military sales customers Answer: B Explanation: GFM is stock supplied by the government to contractors for use in contract performance. Question 31. In a Foreign Military Sales (FMS) transaction, which special code indicates the material is destined for an international partner? A) 0 – Domestic only B) 1 – Export under FMS C) 2 – Security assistance D) 9 – Classified export Answer: B Explanation: Code “1” designates an FMS export, differentiating it from domestic or other security assistance shipments. Question 32. For bulk fuel requisitions, which unit of issue (UI) abbreviation is most commonly used? A) GAL (gallons) B) LTR (liters) C) MT (metric tons) D) BBL (barrels) Answer: A Explanation: Fuel is typically requisitioned in gallons, represented by the UI “GAL”. Question 33. The Julian date “032” in an RDD field corresponds to which calendar day in a non‑leap year? A) February 1 B) February 2 C) February 3 D) February 4
Answer: B Explanation: Julian day 032 counts from January 1, so day 32 is February 1 in a leap year; in a non‑leap year, day 32 is February 1. However, the correct answer based on standard conversion is February 1; the provided options reflect a mis‑alignment, but the intended correct answer is February 1 (option A). (Correct answer adjusted to match options: A – February 1). Question 34. Which Advice Code tells the source of supply to provide a “Continuous Operation” item? A) 2N B) 3P C) 4R D) 6S Answer: A Explanation: Advice Code “2N” signals that the item is required for continuous operation, often used for mission‑critical equipment. Question 35. The Federal Logistics Data (FED LOG) system is primarily used for: A) Submitting travel vouchers B) Requisitioning items via the WebFLIS interface C) Managing personnel records D) Conducting performance appraisals Answer: B Explanation: FED LOG and its WebFLIS component provide electronic access to stock data for requisitioning. Question 36. Which of the following is NOT a typical element of the 80‑column requisition? A) Document Identifier Code (DIC) B) Unit Cost (UC) field C) National Stock Number (NSN) D) Priority Designator (PD) Answer: B
Question 40. Which DIC is used to process a cancellation after material has already been shipped? A) AC B) AF C) AT D) AFC Answer: D Explanation: DIC “AFC” is used to cancel a transaction that has already been processed for shipment, subject to approval. Question 41. The Julian date “777” in the RDD field is used to indicate: A) Immediate delivery required B) Delivery on the 777th day of the fiscal year C) No specific delivery date required (same as 999) D) Delivery within 7 days Answer: A Explanation: “777” is a special code meaning “as soon as possible” or “immediate” delivery. Question 42. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Service Code within the DCN? A) Identifies the type of material (e.g., medical, aviation) B) Indicates the funding source for the transaction C) Specifies the DoD service branch (e.g., Army, Navy) that originated the requisition D) Marks the urgency level of the request Answer: C Explanation: The Service Code part of the DCN signals the originating service branch, such as “A” for Army or “N” for Navy. Question 43. In a supply status report, the two‑digit code “BQ” signifies: A) Processed for release B) Backordered
C) Canceled D) Referred to another activity Answer: C Explanation: “BQ” indicates that the requisition has been canceled. Question 44. Which form is used to report a discrepancy when the packaging of a shipment is damaged? A) SF 364 – Supply Discrepancy Report B) SF 368 – Product Quality Deficiency Report C) DD Form 1348‑1A – Requisition/Issue Document D) DD Form 1494 – Material Transfer Voucher Answer: A Explanation: Packaging damage is reported via SF 364, the standard discrepancy reporting form. Question 45. The “National Item Identification Number (NIIN)” consists of how many digits? A) 6 B) 9 C) 12 D) 4 Answer: B Explanation: The NIIN is a nine‑digit identifier that, together with the FSC, forms the NSN. Question 46. Which of the following codes is used to indicate a “One‑for‑One” exchange in the Advice Code field? A) 1A B) 2N C) 5G D) 7H Answer: C
A) Moving material from one theater to another within the same service B) Reassigning inventory from one activity to another at the same echelon to fulfill a requisition C) Exporting material to a foreign government D) Returning excess material to the supplier Answer: B Explanation: Lateral redistribution transfers stock between peer activities to satisfy demands without external procurement. Question 51. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the Advice Code “2N”? A) Item required for continuous operation B) One‑for‑one exchange required C) Provide a replacement only if the original is defective D) Hold the item for future use Answer: A Explanation: “2N” signals that the item is needed for continuous operation, ensuring uninterrupted mission capability. Question 52. The Julian date “001” in a requisition corresponds to which calendar date? A) January 1 B) January 2 C) December 31 of the previous year D) February 1 Answer: A Explanation: Julian day 001 is the first day of the year, i.e., January 1. Question 53. Which DIC is used to acknowledge that a shipment has been received and is being processed for inventory? A) DRA B) DRB C) DRC
D) DRS
Answer: A Explanation: DIC “DRA” (Material Receipt Acknowledgment) confirms receipt and initiates inventory posting. Question 54. In the 80‑column format, the “Document Control Number” (DCN) is composed of which four elements? A) Service Code, UIC/DoDAAC, Julian Date, Serial Number B) NSN, Quantity, Unit of Issue, Priority Designator C) Document Identifier Code, Routing Identifier Code, Advice Code, Signal Code D) Federal Supply Class, NIIN, Unit Cost, Delivery Date Answer: A Explanation: The DCN uniquely identifies the transaction using Service Code, UIC/DoDAAC, Julian Date, and a serial number. Question 55. Which of the following best describes “Pre‑positioned War Reserve Materiel” (PWRM)? A) Materiel stored at the point of use for immediate consumption B) Materiel held in a central depot for future deployment to a theater of operations C) Materiel purchased on a just‑in‑time basis D) Materiel that is transferred to foreign allies under security assistance Answer: B Explanation: PWRM is strategically stored to enable rapid deployment to a combat theater when needed. Question 56. The “Signal Code” field is also known as: A) Advice Code B) Fund Code C) Media & Status Code D) Priority Designator
Question 60. The “Priority Designator” combines the Force/Activity Designator (F/AD) with the Urgency of Need Designator (UND). If a requisition has PD “C3,” what does this indicate? A) Low force priority with moderate urgency B) High force priority with high urgency C) Medium force priority with low urgency D) Highest force priority with lowest urgency Answer: A Explanation: “C” is a lower force designator, and “3” denotes moderate urgency, together forming a lower overall priority. Question 61. Which DIC is used to request a “Cancel Order” before the material is shipped? A) AC B) AFC C) AF D) AT Answer: A Explanation: “AC1” is the cancellation code used when the request has not yet been shipped. Question 62. In a MILSTRIP transaction, the “Routing Identifier Code” (RIC) for the destination activity is located in which column range? A) Columns 1‑ 3 B) Columns 4‑ 6 C) Columns 7‑ 9 D) Columns 10‑ 12 Answer: C Explanation: The RIC occupies columns 7‑9 in the 80‑column format, identifying the “To” activity. Question 63. Which of the following statements about “Document Identifier Code” (DIC) is correct? A) It identifies the material’s NSN
B) It indicates the type of transaction (e.g., issue, receipt, cancellation) C) It specifies the funding source for the requisition D) It determines the unit of issue for the material Answer: B Explanation: DIC codes classify the transaction type, such as issue (A0A), receipt (DRA), or cancellation (AC1). Question 64. The “Fund Code” in a requisition determines: A) The shipping method to be used B) The activity that will be billed for the material C) The priority level of the request D) The unit of issue for the item Answer: B Explanation: The Fund Code indicates which activity’s funds are to be charged for the requested material. Question 65. Which of the following is true about the “Julian Date” field in the DCN? A) It records the day of the month only B) It uses a three‑digit format representing the day of the year (001‑366) C) It is expressed as MMDDYY D) It is optional and can be left blank Answer: B Explanation: The Julian date is a three‑digit sequential day count within the year, ranging from 001 to
Question 66. In the 80‑column requisition, the “Quantity” field must be: A) Right‑justified with leading blanks B) Left‑justified with leading zeros to fill five digits C) Expressed in decimal format (e.g., 12.5) D) Entered in exponential notation
