NASM CES – Certification Exam – Latest Qs & Ans (2025 - 2026 Edition), Exams of Physical Activity and Sport Sciences

This resource is invaluable for personal trainers, rehabilitation specialists, and allied health professionals aspiring to elevate their credentials and effectiveness within corrective exercise and postural assessment frameworks. Comprehensive, academically rigorous, and aligned to NASM’s latest guidelines, this study bundle is a strategic tool for successfully attaining the NASM CES certification. NASM CES, NASM CES Exam, NASM Certified, Corrective Exercise Specialist, NASM CES Certification, NASM Practice Exam, NASM Study Guide, NASM Exam Prep, NASM Exam Questions, NASM Answers, Corrective Exercise, Personal Trainer Certification, Fitness Certification, NASM Study Materials, Fitness Practice Tests, NASM Mock Exam, Exercise Science, NASM Revision Notes, NASM Sample Questions, NASM Exam Resources, NASM Preparation

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/17/2025

Lectjohn
Lectjohn 🇺🇸

4.4

(34)

1.9K documents

1 / 57

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
1 /
20
NASM CES
Certification Exam
This exam features: 100 multiple-choice ques & Ans
passing score is 95%
1. Which of the following would be an example of an agonist muscle role?
a. The triceps brachii contracting during elbow flexion.
b. The rectus femoris contracting during hip extension.
c. The biceps brachii contracting during elbow flexion.
d. The hamstrings contracting during hip extension.
Ans>> The biceps brachii con- tracting during elbow flexion.
2. A client with an Achilles tendon injury would be expected to have
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30
pf31
pf32
pf33
pf34
pf35
pf36
pf37
pf38
pf39

Partial preview of the text

Download NASM CES – Certification Exam – Latest Qs & Ans (2025 - 2026 Edition) and more Exams Physical Activity and Sport Sciences in PDF only on Docsity!

1 /

NASM CES

Certification Exam

This exam features: 100 multiple-choice ques & Ans

passing score is 95%

  1. Which of the following would be an example of an agonist muscle role? a. The triceps brachii contracting during elbow flexion. b. The rectus femoris contracting during hip extension. c. The biceps brachii contracting during elbow flexion. d. The hamstrings contracting during hip extension. Ans>> The biceps brachii con- tracting during elbow flexion.
  2. A client with an Achilles tendon injury would be expected to have

2 / weakness in which of the following muscles? a. Hamstrings b. Anterior tibialis c. Gastrocnemius d. Posterior tibialis Ans>> Gastrocnemius

  1. Keeping the RI model in mind, excessive forward lean of the trunk that occurs during the descent phase of a squat may be the result of which of the following impairments? a. Reduced mobility of the cervical spine. b. Reduced flexibility of the quadratus lumborum. c. Limited dorsiflexion of the ankles. d. Reduced flexibility of the anterior tibialis. Ans>> Limited dorsiflexion of the ankles.
  2. What term is used to describe how the CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences? a. Motor control b. Motor learning

4 / forth on the target tissue. b. Roll in a slow continuous motion for 60 seconds c. Perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure. d. Perform passive movements such as trainer assisted flexion/extension while maintaining pressure Ans>> Perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure.

  1. A corrective exercise client is going to use the myofascial roller to inhibit overactive tissues. What is the recommended length of time to hold direct pressure on a target tissue? a. 2 to 5 minutes b. 90 to 120 seconds c. 70 to 90 seconds d. 30 to 60 seconds Ans>> 30 to 60 seconds
  2. Why is a textured myofascial roller theorized to be more effective than a flat myofascial roller? a. The textured roller may roll quicker and may be generating more

5 / friction than a smooth roller. b. The texture roller exerts significantly more pressure to the tissue than a smooth one. c. The textured roller was no different than the smooth roller. d. The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller. Ans>> The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller.

  1. What is an important consideration regarding the "ideal amount of pres- sure" needed for a positive response? a. The user's experience with myofascial rolling b. How much pressure the user believes they can tolerate c. The user should take as much pressure as tolerable. d. The user's goals Ans>> The user's experience with myofascial rolling
  2. A client had a knee surgery 3 weeks ago and wants to use a myofascial roller to decrease their hamstring discomfort. What should the fitness profes- sional consider before prescribing the intervention? a. The client can roll over the knee region as long as there is little to no

7 /

  1. A client is in her second trimester of pregnancy and wants to foam roll her legs and upper back. What should the fitness professional consider before prescribing the myofascial intervention? a. The fitness profession should have the patient sign a waiver before they begin myofascial rolling. b. The fitness professional should proceed with caution and check with the client during the intervention. c. The fitness professional should recommend that a relative is present to help monitor the client during a myofascial rolling session. d. The fitness professional should consult the MD. Ans>> The fitness professional should consult the MD.
  2. What is the optimal duration of stretching to decrease musculotendinous stiffness? a. 60-90 seconds b. 30-60 seconds c. 20-30 seconds d. 5-10 seconds Ans>> 30-60 seconds

8 /

  1. What type of stretching is also known as PNF? a. Neuromuscular b. Dynamic c. Ballistic d. Static Ans>> Neuromuscular
  2. How does the concept of tissue creep relate to stretching? a. Prolonged stretching can lead to a 1-month length change in muscles and tendons. b. Prolonged stretching can lead to a permanent length change in muscles and tendons. c. Short-term stretching can lead to a 2-month length change in muscles and tendons. d. Short-term stretching can lead to a permanent length change in muscles and tendons. Ans>> Prolonged stretching can lead to a permanent length change in muscles and tendons.
  3. What types of injuries might static stretching be most effective at reduc- ing?

10 /

  1. What is the recommended duration for static stretching for older adults? a. 6-10 seconds b. 30-34 seconds c. 20-30 seconds d. 60-seconds Ans>> 60 seconds
  2. Which receptor is activated by tension exerted on the muscle tendon and muscle? Select one; a. Merkle disc b. Golgi tendon organ (GTO) c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Ruffini ending Ans>> b. Golgi tendon organ (GTO)
  3. In which order of the Corrective Exercise Continuum does activation oc- cur? Select one; a. First b. Third c. Fourth

11 / d. Second Ans>> b. Third

  1. Greatest strength gains take place while the muscle is under resistance while doing which of the following? Select one; a. Perturbating b. Shortening c. Stabilizing d. Lengthening Ans>> d. Lengthening
  2. Low sets and relatively light weights are needed to allow for the slow tempo and high repetition range to provide mild stress to specific areas of the body that benefit from regular activations with which of the following intensities? Select one; a. High-level activations b. Moderate-level activations c. Low-level activations d. Beginner-level activations Ans>> c. Low-level activations
  3. Jamie demonstrated a posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is an appropriate activation

13 / b. Abdominal crunch on stability ball c. Standing hamstring curl d. Wall slides Ans>> a. Standing hip flexor

  1. The activation phase primarily focuses on correcting which of the follow- ing? Select one; a. Hypertonic muscles b. Lack of flexibility c. Lengthened muscles d. Muscle imbalance Ans>> c. Lengthened muscles
  2. Activation exercises may not be considered normal but are designed to provide isolated strengthening to specific muscles prior to moving into an integrated movement pattern by placing joints in the best position for which of the following? Select one; a. Ideal activation b. Preferential activation c. Positional activation d. Isometric activation

14 / Ans>> b. Preferential activation

  1. Which phase of the muscle action spectrum leads to the most muscle damage, inflammation, impaired muscle function, and muscular soreness occurs, providing a good reason to limit the number of sets for the initial exerciser? Select one; a. Eccentric deceleration b. Isometric stabilization c. The amortization phase d. Concentric acceleration Ans>> a. Eccentric deceleration
  2. What is the recommended order of progressions when considering planes of motion? Select one; a. Sagittal > Frontal > Transverse b. Sagittal > Scapular > Rotational c. Transverse > Sagittal > Frontal d. Frontal > Transverse > Sagittal Ans>> a. Sagittal > Frontal > Transverse
  3. Strengthening of one side unilaterally can also increase the strength of which of the following?

16 / b. Posteriorly rotated limb c. Anteriorly rotated limb d. Ipsilateral limb Ans>> a. Contralateral limb

  1. Recent research has found which of the following regarding the use of wobble boards, soft mats, and air-filled bladders? Select one; a. They may increase motor control. b. They are ideal for producing strength. c. They may decrease joint stiffness. d. They are ideal for producing power. Ans>> a. They may increase motor control.
  2. During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed? Select one; a. The amortization phase b. Concentric acceleration c. Isometric stabilization d. Eccentric deceleration Ans>> d. Eccentric deceleration
  3. In order to obtain neuromuscular efficiency and optimization of

17 / human movement, total-body integrated exercises are called on to provide and con- trol which of the following? Select one; a. Degrees of freedom b. Circumduction c. Balance d. Joint ROM Ans>> a. Degrees of freedom

  1. A client states he has a sharp pain in his right knee when he is completing his exercises. What should the Corrective Exercise Specialist do to ensure the client's safety? Select one; a. Continue the session as normal. b. Refer them to a qualified medical professional. c. Suggest supplements for the client to take for these issues. d. Modify activity for the day and continue as normal for the next session. Ans>> b. Refer them to a qualified medical professional.
  2. Which items should be considered when assessing the lifestyle of a client? Select one; a. Medical history and past surgeries

19 / c. Pattern overload and repetitive movements d. Occupation and stress Ans>> b. Recreation or hobbies

  1. Which of the following statements accurately describes the effects of poor hydration levels on performance and movement? Select one; a. It causes a decrease in performance and overall health. b. It makes high-intensity activities easier to perform. c. Poor hydration will make movements rapid and twitchy. d. Electrolytes work better when the body is slightly dehydrated. Ans>> a. It causes a decrease in performance and overall health.
  2. In which component of a client intake screen would the question, "Do you feel like your work day is mentally stressful?" be most appropriate to ask? Select one; a. Lifestyle b. Occupation c. Biometrics d. Medical history Ans>> b. Occupation
  3. Why is wearing high heels daily a consideration for potential postural dysfunction?

20 / Select one; a. It leads to high levels of occupational stress. b. It signifies the potential for hypertension. c. It reduces sleep quality and quantity. d. It puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion. Ans>> d. It puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion.

  1. "Do you have any stressors in your personal life" is an example of a question assessing this client aspect? Select one; a. Recreation b. Occupation c. Hobbies d. Lifestyle Ans>> d. Lifestyle
  2. Which of the following are postural distortion patterns identified by Janda? Select one; a. Kyphosis-lordosis, flat-back, and Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome b. Kyphosis-lordosis, sway-back, pronator lordosis, and Lower Distortion Syn- drome c. Military Posture, Pronator Distortion Syndrome, and Upper Distortion Syn- drome