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Question 1. Which of the following is one of the U.S. Navy’s core values? A) Discipline B) Honor C) Loyalty D) Initiative Answer: B Explanation: The Navy’s core values are Honor, Courage, and Commitment; Honor is the first listed. Question 2. The primary mission of the U.S. Navy is to: A) Conduct ground combat operations B) Provide strategic airlift worldwide C) Maintain freedom of the seas and project power from the sea D) Manage the nation’s cyber defenses Answer: C Explanation: The Navy’s mission is to secure maritime superiority, ensuring freedom of navigation and power projection. Question 3. On which date was the Continental Navy formally established? A) July 4, 1776 B) October 13, 1775 C) December 7, 1941 D) June 6, 1944 Answer: B Explanation: The Continental Congress authorized the Navy on 13 October 1775.
Question 4. Who is considered the “Father of the American Navy”? A) Horatio Nelson B) John Paul Jones C) David Farragut D) Chester Nimitz Answer: B Explanation: John Paul Jones earned the title for his daring actions during the Revolutionary War. Question 5. Which battle is credited with turning the tide in the Pacific during World War II? A) Battle of the Atlantic B) Battle of Midway C) Battle of Leyte Gulf D) Battle of Coral Sea Answer: B Explanation: The Battle of Midway (June 1942) halted Japanese expansion and shifted strategic initiative to the U.S. Question 6. In the Navy chain of command, who is directly above a Recruit Division Commander (RDC)? A) The Secretary of the Navy B) The Commanding Officer of Recruit Training Command (RTC) C) The Fleet Master Chief D) The President of the United States Answer: B
Answer: D Explanation: The service patch is positioned on the left sleeve, just below the shoulder seam. Question 10. Which of the following is NOT an element of the Navy’s Code of Conduct? A) “I will never surrender.” B) “I will keep my word.” C) “I will obey lawful orders from my superiors.” D) “I will resist any attempt to obtain my secrets.” Answer: C Explanation: The Code of Conduct focuses on conduct in captivity; obedience to lawful orders is covered elsewhere (UCMJ). Question 11. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) applies to: A) Only commissioned officers B) All active-duty service members, including reservists when activated C) Civilians employed by the Department of Defense D) Only members of the Navy and Marine Corps Answer: B Explanation: The UCMJ governs all active-duty personnel and reservists when they are in a military status. Question 12. Non-Judicial Punishment (NJP) is commonly known as: A) Court-Martial B) Article 15 C) Administrative Separation D) General Court-Martial
Answer: B Explanation: NJP is carried out under Article 15 of the UCMJ. Question 13. Under Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) policy, which of the following is protected as a characteristic? A) Political affiliation B) Marital status C) Religion D) Hair length Answer: C Explanation: Religion is a protected characteristic under EO; political affiliation and hair length are not. Question 14. The Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) program’s primary purpose is to: A) Conduct investigations only after an assault is reported B) Provide counseling, advocacy, and reporting options for victims C) Discipline perpetrators through non-judicial punishment only D) Restrict all interactions between male and female Sailors Answer: B Explanation: SAPR offers confidential support, counseling, and reporting resources for victims. Question 15. Fraternization in the Navy is prohibited because it: A) Violates the Uniform Code of Military Justice B) Undermines good order and discipline C) Is considered a criminal offense under federal law D) Leads to loss of pay grades
D) The forwardmost part of the hull Answer: B Explanation: A bulkhead is a vertical partition that can be watertight. Question 19. In naval slang, “scuttlebutt” means: A) A small water tank B) A rumor or gossip C) A type of fire-extinguishing equipment D) The ship’s galley stove Answer: B Explanation: “Scuttlebutt” is informal for gossip among crew. Question 20. Which knot is used to secure a line to a post when setting up a temporary berth? A) Bowline B) Clove hitch C) Figure-eight D) Square knot Answer: B Explanation: The clove hitch is ideal for quickly attaching a line to a post. Question 21. The 1MC on a ship is primarily used for: A) Internal email communication B) General announcing and emergency notifications C) Navigation chart updates D) Cooking orders in the galley Answer: B
Explanation: The 1MC (first-mast circuit) broadcasts announcements and alarms shipwide. Question 22. Which navigational light indicates a vessel is “restricted in her ability to maneuver”? A) Red over green B) Red over white C) White over red D) Green over white Answer: B Explanation: A red over white light signals a vessel restricted in its ability to maneuver. question 23. The buoy system that marks the “safe water” side of a channel in the United States is: A) Red-right-return B) Green-left-return C) Yellow-right-return D) Red-left-return Answer: A Explanation: In the U.S., red buoys should be kept on the vessel’s starboard (right) when returning from sea. question 24. Which class of fire involves energized electrical equipment? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class D
Answer: A Explanation: Patches are applied over small hull breaches to stop flooding. question 28. The proper procedure for donning the MCU-2/P gas mask includes: A) Pull the mask over the head, then tighten the straps, then perform a user seal check B) Fasten the straps first, then pull the mask over the head, then check the seal C) Perform a seal check before tightening the straps D) No seal check is required if the mask is new Answer: A Explanation: The sequence is mask placement, strap tightening, then a seal check. question 29. During an abandon-ship drill, the primary purpose of the “life ring” is to: A) Provide buoyancy for a single sailor in the water B) Mark the location of the ship’s anchor C) Serve as a flotation device for the ship’s mascot D) Signal to aircraft that the ship is sinking Answer: A Explanation: Life rings are designed to keep an individual afloat while awaiting rescue. question 30. Which of the following is NOT a component of the standard Navy damage-control team? A) Firefighters B) Medical corpsmen
C) Hull repair specialists D) Aviation pilots Answer: D Explanation: Aviation pilots are not part of the shipboard damage-control team. question 31. Which of the following is one of the four universal weapon safety rules? A) Keep the muzzle pointed toward the ground at all times B) Keep the weapon loaded at all times C) Never point the weapon at anything you do not intend to destroy D) Discharge the weapon only after a verbal command Answer: C Explanation: The universal rule is to keep the muzzle pointed only at a safe target. question 32. The M9 Service Pistol is chambered for which caliber? A) .38 Special B) 9 mm Luger C) .45 ACP D) .40 S&W Answer: B Explanation: The M9 (Beretta) fires 9 mm Luger ammunition. question 33. The Mossberg 500 shotgun used by the Navy typically fires which gauge? A) 12-gauge B) 20-gauge
D) Shipboard navigation skills Answer: B Explanation: Warrior Toughness focuses on mental health, resilience, and coping strategies. question 37. A Sailor’s Leave and Earnings Statement (LES) provides: A) Only the amount of basic pay B) Detailed breakdown of pay, deductions, and leave balance C) A list of upcoming training courses D) Emergency contact information Answer: B Explanation: The LES shows pay, allowances, taxes, deductions, and accrued leave. question 38. The Physical Readiness Test (PRT) for Navy Sailors includes: A) 1.5-mile run, push-ups, and sit-ups B) 500-yard swim, pull-ups, and a 2-mile run C) 500-yard swim, push-ups, and a 1.5-mile run D) 2-mile run, sit-ups, and a 100-yard dash Answer: C Explanation: The Navy PRT consists of a 500-yard swim, push-ups, and a 1.5-mile run. question 39. Under the Navy’s Zero-Tolerance policy, which substance is prohibited for all Sailors? A) Caffeine B) Nicotine gum C) Illegal drugs
D) Over-the-counter pain relievers Answer: C Explanation: Zero-Tolerance bans illegal drugs; other substances may be used under regulation. question 40. The rank insignia for a Navy Lieutenant (O-3) is: A) One gold oak leaf B) Two silver bars C) One silver bar D) Three gold stars Answer: B Explanation: A Lieutenant (O-3) wears two silver bars. question 41. Which of the following is a requirement for a Sailor to be eligible for the “Seaman Recruit” pay grade? A) Completion of boot camp only B) Completion of both boot camp and “A” school C) Completion of the “Battle Stations” qualification D) None; all recruits receive the same pay regardless of training status Answer: D Explanation: All Seaman Recruits (E-1) receive the same basic pay; qualifications affect rank, not pay grade. question 42. The term “overhead” on a ship refers to: A) The deck above the main deck B) The ceiling of a compartment C) Any structure above the waterline D) The ship’s communication antenna
Explanation: General Order 5 requires the sentry to prevent unauthorized passage. question 46. When logging a ship’s position, the format used is: A) Latitude, Longitude, in degrees, minutes, seconds B) Longitude, Latitude, in decimal degrees only C) Latitude only, expressed in nautical miles from base D) Grid coordinates based on the Mercator projection Answer: A Explanation: Standard navigation logs record latitude first, then longitude, in DMS. question 47. The “Bullseye” on a ship’s deck is used to: A) Indicate the location of the ship’s fire control center B) Provide a reference point for measuring distances on the deck C) Mark the spot where the ship’s flag is hoisted D) Identify the galley’s main cooking area Answer: B Explanation: The bullseye is a painted circle used as a reference for deck measurements. question 48. Which of the following is the correct order of steps to stop a small hull breach using a “plug”? A) Locate breach → Clean area → Insert plug → Secure with clamps B) Insert plug → Apply sealant → Pull the plug out after 24 hours C) Apply sealant → Insert plug → Fire the area D) Clean area → Apply sealant → Insert plug → Cover with a patch Answer: A
Explanation: Proper damage control requires locating, cleaning, plugging, then clamping. question 49. In a CBRN (Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear) environment, the first line of individual protection is: A) Full-body tactical suit B) Gas mask with appropriate filter C) Chemical-resistant boots only D) Standard uniform with rain gear Answer: B Explanation: The gas mask (with correct filter) provides immediate respiratory protection. question 50. Which fire-extinguishing agent is most appropriate for a Class D (metal) fire? A) Water B) Foam C) Dry powder (e.g., sodium chloride) D) Carbon dioxide Answer: C Explanation: Dry powder agents are designed for combustible metal fires. question 51. The “Ship’s Cook” is responsible for which of the following? A) Maintaining the ship’s navigation charts B) Preparing meals and ensuring food safety for the crew C) Conducting damage-control drills D) Operating the ship’s radar Answer: B
Explanation: A Chief Petty Officer wears three chevrons, a rocker, and a diamond. question 55. The “General Order No. 9” for a sentry requires the sentry to: A) Keep the post clean at all times B) Report all weapons to the Officer of the Deck C) Ensure the area is free of fire hazards D) Never leave the post without permission Answer: D Explanation: General Order 9 states the sentry shall not leave the post without authority. question 56. The “USS” prefix in a ship’s name stands for: A) United States Ship B) Undersea Submarine C) Universal Service Ship D) Unarmed Support Ship Answer: A Explanation: “USS” denotes a commissioned vessel of the United States Navy. question 57. Which of the following is the correct NATO phonetic alphabet term for the letter “M”? A) Mike B) November C) Romeo D) Lima
Answer: A Explanation: “Mike” represents the letter M. question 58. In Navy financial terms, “BAS” stands for: A) Basic Allowance for Subsistence B) Base Assignment Schedule C) Battle-Ready Assessment System D) Budget Allocation Summary Answer: A Explanation: BAS is the monthly allowance for meals. question 59. The Navy’s “Sea Service Credit” is earned by: A) Completing any shore-based training B) Serving on a vessel for a minimum of 12 months C) Accumulating 1,000 flight hours D) Attending a single boot-camp class Answer: B Explanation: Sailors earn sea-service credit for time spent aboard a ship or submarine. question 60. The “Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA)” provides breathable air for up to how many minutes? A) 5 minutes B) 15 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 45 minutes Answer: B
