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NDAEB Practice Questions correctly answered, Exams of Advanced Education

Cheyney University of PennsylvaniaAdvanced Education

NDAEB Practice Questions correctly answered

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 05/06/2026

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tizian-mwangi 🇺🇸

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NDAEB Practice Questions correctly answered
1.
Who was the first woman to graduate from a recognized dental
college?:
Lucy
B.
Hobbs-Taylor
2. What are the conditions that would indicate the need for
restorative den-
tistry?: - initial or recurring decay
-
replacement
or
failed
restorations
-
abrasion
or
wearing
away
of
tooth
structure
3.
True or False: Aesthetic dentistry is primarily devoted to
improving the
appearance of teeth; specific conditions that
indicate a need for aesthetic treatment include the replacement
of a partial denture.: False
4.
The process of removing unhealthy tooth structure while leaving
a limited amount of healthy structure for the tooth to maintain a
restoration is known as cavity preparation. This process involves
which of the following steps?:
- initial
preparation
-
outline,
resistance,
retention,
convenience
form
-
final
preparation
5. Responsibilities of the dental assistant in the restorative process
can include performing expanded function and maintaining patient
control.: True
6.
Class
II
restorations
are
found
on
the....:
Posterior
teeth
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30

Partial preview of the text

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1 / 48

NDAEB Practice Questions correctly answered

  1. Who was the first woman to graduate from a recognized dental college?: Lucy B. Hobbs-Taylor
  2. What are the conditions that would indicate the need for restorative den-tistry?: - initial or recurring decay
  • replacement or failed restorations
  • abrasion or wearing away of tooth structure
  1. True or False: Aesthetic dentistry is primarily devoted to improving the appearance of teeth; specific conditions that indicate a need for aesthetic treatment include the replacement of a partial denture.: False
  2. The process of removing unhealthy tooth structure while leaving a limited amount of healthy structure for the tooth to maintain a restoration is known as cavity preparation. This process involves which of the following steps?: - initial preparation
  • outline, resistance, retention, convenience form
  • final preparation
  1. Responsibilities of the dental assistant in the restorative process can include performing expanded function and maintaining patient control.: True
  2. Class II restorations are found on the....: Posterior teeth

2 / 48

  1. The usual material of choice for class III and Class IV restorations is ...: Com-posite Resin
  2. The Class V restoration is classified as a smooth surface filling and can be found on the...: - incisors
  • canines
  • premolars
  1. When are retention pins used as a part of the direct restorative process?: - when decay has extended beyond the normal size and shape of the cavity preparation
  • when a stronger system for retaining and supporting the restoration is needed
  • when one or more cusps of the tooth is missing
  1. A veneer is a thin layer of tooth-coloured material that is placed on the facial surface of a prepared tooth and is used for:: - improving appearance of teeth that are abraded, eroded or discoloured
  • closing a diastema
  • improving alignment of teeth
  1. When is tooth whitening or vital bleaching not indicated for a dental pa-tient?: when the patient presents with severe tetracycline and fluorosis stains
  2. A matrix must be used to create a temporary wall for which of the following classifications of tooth restoration?: Class II, III, and V
  3. The most common matrix system used for class II posterior restorations is the...: tofflemire retainer and matrix band
  4. The universal/Tofflemire retainer holds the matrix band snugly in position and is most often positioned...: on the buccal surface of the

4 / 48

  • bristle brushes
  1. The ultrasonic scaler is needed for a coronal polish...: False
  2. Disclosing solution can be used for:: - identifying areas of plaque
  • evaluating the ettectiveness of the polishing
  1. Teeth with very small initial carious lesions may be sealed, and the bacteria will not survive under a properly placed sealant: True
  2. Sealants have been proved an effective way to prevent the development of dental caries and are indicated:: - through the caries-active period (ages 6-15)
  • for teeth with deep pits & fissures
  • for some adults
  1. Sealants shouldn't be used in which of the following situations::
  • obvious dental decay or proximal surface decay
  • primary teeth that will be lost soon
  • poor patient cooperation in the dental chair or lack of pits & fissures
  1. Sealants may vary in:: - method of polymerization
  • colour
  • whether they contain fillers
  1. A general tip for sealant materials is to store them in a refrigerator:: False
  2. The first step in placing dental sealants is to:: clean the surface
  3. A sealant that is polymerized by chemical reactions is called:: Self-Cured
  4. Self-Cured sealant materials are supplied as a two-part

5 / 48 system that in-cludes:: - a base

  • a catalyst
  1. Dental sealants should be used as part of a preventative program that includes:: - fluorides
  • dietary considerations
  • plaque control
  1. Enamel that has been etched has the appearance of being:: frosty
  2. Antidepressants are often used in dentistry to alleviate or reduce anxiety and pain: False
  3. The agents that provide a temporary numbing effect on nerve endings located on the surface of the oral mucosa are:: Topical Anesthetics
  4. Topical anesthesia is available in the form of:: - ointments & liquids
  • sprays
  • patches
  1. The most frequently used form of pain control used in dentistry is:: Local Anesthesia
  2. is added to local anesthetic agent to slow down the intake of the agent and increase the duration of action: Vasoconstrictor
  3. The the ratio, the higher the percentage of vasoconstrictor in the anesthetic agent: Smaller

7 / 48

  1. The lengths of the needles used in dentistry are:: 1 and 15/ inches
  2. The gauge of the needle refers to the thickness of the needle; the larger the gauge, the the needle: thinner
  3. During the loading of an anesthetic syringe, the is loaded first: anesthetic cartridge
  4. To be certain the anesthetic solution is not injected into a blood vessel, the dentist:: - uses an aspirating syringe
  • always aspirates before depositing any solution
  1. Anesthetic solutions are extremely effective for patients with a tooth or soft tissue infection..: False
  2. Parathesia, the condition in which numbness lasts after the effects of the local anesthetic solutions should have worn off, may be caused by:: - contaminated anesthetic solution
  • trauma/injury to nerve sheath during injection or surgery
  • hemorrhage into/around nerve sheath
  1. Nitrous Oxide/Oxygen analgesia use in dentistry dates back to 1844 and is also known as:: Inhalation sedation
  2. An advantage of using nitrous oxide/oxygen is that it is relatively simple to administer and easy to manage..: True
  3. No absolute medical contraindications exist for N2O/O analgesia, but certain conditions make it a poor choice for some patients: True

8 / 48

  1. Which of the following must be used to protect dental personnel from the occupational risks of nitrous oxide by reducing the N2O released into the treatment room?: - Scavenger System
  • Patient mask that fits well and doesn't leak
  1. Nitrous oxide oxygen administration always begins and ends with:: the patient breathing 100% O
  2. In the dental office, sedatives may be used:: - for a very nervous patient
  • for a procedure that will be long or diflcult
  • for a mentally challenged patient
  1. A DA can start, monitor and remove IV sedation for a dental patient..: False
  2. General Anesthesia is most safely administered in:: the hospital
  3. The different levels of consciousness and unconsciousness are referred to as stages of anesthesia; these stages include:: - Stage 1 (anesthesia)
  • Stage 2 (excitement)
  • Stage 3 (general anesthesia)
  1. Documentation records of pain & anxiety analgesia may include:: - review of patients health hx
  • time anesthesia began & ended
  • adverse events or pt complaints
  1. The most important way to prevent a medical emergency is to be sure the pt has before tx has begun.: completed/updated medical hx

10 / 48

  • Circulation
  • Defibrillation
  1. The cells of the brain are irreversibly damaged after without oxygen.- : 4-6 minutes
  2. The most important measures in preventing an airway obstruction during dental treatment include:: - use of HVE
  • use of dental dam
  • placement of a throat pack (gauze placed at the base of throat during surgery)
  1. The AED is used to:: - reestablish proper heart rhythm by defibrillation
  • shock the heart
  • monitor the pt's heart rhythm
  1. When defibrillation is provided within the first 4 minutes of cardiac arrest, there is about a chance that you can save the victims life..: 50 %
  2. The DA's responsibility in an emergency situation is:: - recognize signs & symptoms of a significant medical complaint
  • to provide appropriate support in implementing emergency procedures
  1. When assessing a medical emergency, the DA should remember that the physical changes observed can include:: - unconsciousness
  • convulsions
  • respiratory distress

11 / 48

  1. A reduction in blood flow to the brain that would cause the pt to lose consciousness is called:: Syncope/Fainting
  2. Treatment for Syncope may include:: - ammonia inhalant
  • placing pt in a sub-supine position
  • calling 911
  1. Symptoms of an acute myocardial infarction include:: - short of breath
  • nausea/vomiting
  • mildi-severe chest pain
  1. , which is precipitated by stress & anxiety, may manifest in rapid & shallow breathing, lightheadedness, rapid heartbeat and a panic- stricken appearance and is treated by having the pt breathe into a paper bag or cupped hands?: Hyperventilation
  2. Anaphylaxis can be life threatening and the signs and symptoms include:: - nausea/vomiting

13 / 48 changes to the tongue.: Glossitis

  1. Warning signs of oral cancer include:: - any sore in the mouth that doesn't heal
  • numbness in or around the oral cavity
  • white or rough-textured lesions on the lips or oral cavity
  1. Smokeless tobacco presents a serious health hazard because users may have:: - high rates of periodontal disease & tooth loss
  • precancerous leukoplakia
  • 400 - 500 times more cancers of the pharynx, larynx & esophagus
  1. Oral manifestations of HIV/AIDS can include:: - HIV Gingivitis
  • Kaposi's Sarcoma
  • Hairy Leukoplakia
  1. When cells of the body divide and a deformity of a part of the body occurs, it is:: a developmental disorder
  2. A condition characterized by abnormally large jaws is:: Macrognathia
  3. The condition known as refers to any teeth in excess of the 32 normal permanent teeth.: Supernumerary teeth
  4. A hereditary abnormality in which there are defects in the enamel forma-tion is:: Amelogenesis Imperfecta
  5. Any tooth that remains unerupted in the jaws beyond the time at which it should normally erupt is referred to as:: Impacted
  6. An oral habit consisting of involuntary gnashing, grinding &

14 / 48 clenching of the teeth is:: Bruxism

  1. Why may orofacial piercings be dangerous?: - teeth could be cracked & nerve damage could occur
  • infection & uncontrollable bleeding could occur
  • the tongue could swell & close ott the airway
  1. Known Teratogens involved in congenital malformation include radiation, chemicals, infections & drugs: True
  2. The are irregular ridges or folds in the mucous membrane that are located on the anterior portion of the hard palate just behind the maxillary incisors.: Rugae
  3. A is a narrow fold of mucous membrane passing from a more fixed to a movable part.: Frenum
  4. The corners of the lips are called the:: Commissures
  5. The is/are body spicules in cancellous bone that form a meshwork of intercommunicating spaces that are filled with bone marrow.: Trabeculae
  6. The filiform papillae, which cover the surface of the tongue, are the recep-tors of:: Touch
  7. The term means toward the cheek:: Buccal
  8. Ectoderm differentiates into:: - skin
  • lining of the oral cavity
  1. The periodontal ligament is capable of:: - Remodelling
  • Resorption
  1. The innermost area of the tooth is the:: pulp chamber

16 / 48

  1. The is the constricted area where the anatomic crown and the tooth of the tooth meet.: Cervix
  2. The process through which the tooth comes into the oral cavity and tries to maintain occlusions is known as:: Eruption
  3. T hat portion of the tooth that is visible in the mouth is known as the crown of the tooth:: Clinical
  4. The fibre groups forms a band around the neck of the tooth: Circular
  5. extends from the base of the sulcus to the mucogingival junc-tion.: Free Gingivae
  6. The bones join to form the bridge of the nose.: Nasal
  7. Tooth morphology is the study of:: - size of the teeth
  • shape of the teeth
  • form & structure of the teeth
  1. The single rooted teeth located at the front of the mouth are the:: Incisors
  2. The bony ridge over the facial portion of the canine is the:: Canine Eminence
  3. Another term for premolars is:: Bicuspids
  4. The dental arch that is capable of movement through the action of the TMJ is the:: Mandible
  5. The dental arch is often divided into six sections called::

17 / 48 Sextants

  1. The lingual surfaces of the teeth are those surfaces that are closest to the:: Tongue
  2. The proximal surfaces of the teeth are those surfaces that are:: Next to an adjacent tooth
  3. The area between adjacent tooth surfaces is called the:: Interproximal Space
  4. The junction of surfaces forms a point angle.: Three
  5. If a tooth has an inadequate contour, the gingiva may be damaged.: True
  6. The height of contour is the:: Bulge or widest point on a specific surface of the crown
  7. An embrasure may diverge in which direction(s)?: - facially
  • occlusally
  • apically
  1. The term to describe the condition when there is maximal stable contact between the occluding surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth is:: Cen-tric Occlusion
  2. The normal spaces between the primary teeth are called:: Primate Space
  3. How many teeth are in the primary dentition?: 20
  4. The cusp of Carabelli is found on which teeth?: Maxillary 1st Molars

19 / 48

  • small yellowish elevations
  1. The interdental gingiva is also known as:: Gingival Papilla
  2. Which of the following are functions of the tongue?: - speech
  • cleansing of the oral cavity
  • taste
  • swallowing
  1. The receptors for the taste of sweet are located:: on the tip of the tongue
  2. The hanging projection of tissue at the border of the soft palate is the:: Uvula
  3. Which bones make up part of the orbit at the inner angle of the eye?: Lacrimal
  4. The is the region of the mesial or distal surfaces of a tooth that touches the adjacent tooth in the same arch.: Contact point
  5. An angle formed by the junction of three surfaces at one point is called:: - Point Angle
  6. Proper occlusion of the erupting permanent teeth is dependent on that of the primary teeth as they are shed.: True
  7. Class II occlusion is also known as:: Distoclusion
  8. The curvature formed by the maxillary and mandibular arches in occlusion is known as the:: Curve of Spee
  9. In the Universal Numbering System, the maxillary right

20 / 48 later incisor is number:: 7

  1. In the Universal Numbering System, the mandibular left second premolar is number:: 20
  2. What permanent cement would most commonly be selected for cement-ing a stainless steel crown on a primary tooth that provides a good overall strength and nonirritating quality?: Polycarboxylate
  3. Copal Varnish acceptable for placement under an amalgam restora-tion.: Is
  4. Zinc oxide-eugenol cement can be used as a:: - temporary cement
  • sedative base
  1. When mixing the dental cements, the powder to liquid ratio depends on the:: Intended use of the material
  2. When ready for use, properly mixed polycarboxylate cement should ap-pear:: Glossy
  3. A restoration of IRM can last up to:: Several months
  4. A(n) base is placed to soothe the pulp that has been irritated by decay, injury, or the trauma of the cavity preparation.: Sedative
  5. Type zinc phosphate cement is designed for the accurate seating of precision castings.: 1
  6. To provide a better adhesion of material to tooth structure, the dentist may select for the tooth preparation.: a conditioner/etchant
  7. The calcium hydroxide cavity liner is mixed with a(n):: - ball- shaped applicator