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NETWORK + PRACTICE QUESTIONS
A device designed to filter and transfer data packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called: a: hub b: load balancer c: Router d: Switch - Router Which of the following answers refers to a data link layer (Layer 2) device designed to forward data packets between Local Area Network (LAN) segments? a switch b firewall c router d hub - Switch A device that apart from the function of an ordinary network switch can also provide additional functions at higher levels of the OSI reference model is known as a multilayer switch. true or false - true Which of the following answers refers to a software or hardware that monitors network traffic and depending on the configuration settings applied to each data packet either blocks it or allows it to pass through? a HIDS b firewall c load balancer d vulnerability scanner - Firewall A security solution implemented on an individual computer monitoring that specific system for malicious activities or policy violations is referred to as: a NIPS b MAC filter c firewall d HIDS - HIDS
Which of the following answers illustrates the difference between passive and active security breach response? a HIPS vs NIPS b UTM vs Firewall c CSMA/CD vs CSMA/CA d IDS vs IPS - IDS vs IPS An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is commonly referred to as: a demarc b access point (AP) c intermediate distribution frame (IDF) d active hub - AP (access point) An application software used to selectively block access to certain websites is an example of: a captive portal b media converter c content filter d proxy server - Content filter A network device designed for managing the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources is called: a layer 3 switch b access point (AP) c load balancer d domain controller - load balancer The disadvantage from using this device results from the fact that any incoming signal on any of its ports is re-created and sent out on any connected ports which has a negative impact on network performance. a router b switch c bridge d hub - Hub Which of the devices listed below allows for establishing a communication channel over a PSTN?
d SSL/TLS e PPTP - IPSec GRE SSL/TLS PPTP In the AAA security architecture, the process of tracking accessed services as well as the amount of consumed resources is called: a authentication b authorization c accounting - accounting Which of the answers listed below refers to the process of granting or denying access to resources? a authentication b authorization c accounting - authorization Which part of the AAA security architecture deals with the verification of the identity of a person or process? a authentication b authorization c accounting - authentication Which of the following solutions provide(s) the AAA functionality? (Select all that apply) a PAP b RADIUS c TACACS+ d PPTP e MSCHAP - RADIUS TACACS A dial-up or VPN connection allowing remote users to access corporate network requires what type of service? a RAS b PoE c NAS d WPS - RAS
A software solution designed to enable interaction between two devices over a network is generally referred to as: a proxy b web service c software as a service (SaaS) d virtual switch - web service An IP PBX system is an example of: a UTM appliance b peer-to-peer (P2P) architecture c unified voice services d reverse proxy - Unified voice services Which of the following answers lists an example of a protocol used for implementing control over multiple Access Points (APs)? a LDAP b LWAPP c RTSP d MGCP - LWAPP Which of the following solutions provides an alternative to manual assignment of IP addresses? a DNS b SNMP c NAT d DHCP - DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) One of the features of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is the capability for static allocation of an IP address based on the IP-to-MAC address mapping. true or false - true Which of the following terms refers to permanent IP address assignment from a DHCP server? a scope b reservation c DHCP relay d lease - reservation
C DNS server D DHCP server - DNS server Which of the DNS database records listed below returns a 32-bit IPv4 address? a MX b AAAA c CNAME d A e PTR - A Which of the following DNS database records maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain? a AAAA b MX c PTR d CNAME e A - MX The DNS database AAAA record creates a pointer that maps a hostname to: a IPv4 address b mail server c IPv6 address d canonical name - IPv Which of the DNS database records listed below allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address? a MX b CNAME c AAAA d PTR e A - CNAME Which of the following statements describing the function of a DNS PTR record are true? (Select 2 answers) a PTR record creates a pointer that maps a hostname to an IP address for reverse lookups. b The functionality provided by a PTR record allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address.
c PTR record resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups. d The functionality provided by a PTR record is the opposite of A and AAAA DNS records ePTR record maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain. - c PTR record resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups. d The functionality provided by a PTR record is the opposite of A and AAAA DNS records Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution that allows for keeping a domain name linked to a changing IP address? a network address translation (NAT) b domain name system (DNS) c dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) d dynamic DNS (DDNS) - Dynamic DNS (DDNS) In computer networking, a system or an application processing requests on behalf of another system is commonly referred to as a proxy b web server c main-in-the-middle (MITM) d first responder - proxy Which of the following statements describe the function of a forward proxy? (Select 2 answers) a acts on behalf of a client b hides the identity of a client c acts on behalf of a server d hides the identity of a server - acts on behalf of a client hides the identity of a client Which of the statements listed below describe the function of a reverse proxy? (Select 2 answers) a acts on behalf of a client b hides the identity of a client c acts on behalf of a server d hides the identity of a server - acts on behalf of a server
Which of the following answers list(s) the characteristic feature(s) of fiber-optic cabling? (Select all that apply) a high signal attenuation b immunity to electromagnetic interference c provides higher level of security than copper cabling (difficult to tap into d low bandwidth capacity e more suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling - b immunity to electromagnetic interference Provides higher level of security than copper cabling (difficult to tap into) More suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling Which of the following answers refers to an international standard for high-speed data communications over fiber-optic media? a ISDN b HSPA+ c LTE d SONET - SONET A method that allows to combine multiple analog or digital data streams for transmission over a shared medium is known as: a multiplexing b load balancing c packet shaping d frame aggregation - multiplexing Which of the following answers refer(s) to the multiplexing method(s) used in fiber-optic communication? (Select all that apply) a CDMA b CWDM c CSMA d DWDM - CWDM DWDM
Which of the answers listed below refer to examples of packet-switching communication methods? (Select 2 answers) A frame relay B POTS C T-carrier D ATM E E-carrier - ATM frame relay What are the characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select all that apply) a lack of signal interface b signal latency c high connection speed d interference (weather dependent) e low connection speed - signal latency interference (weather dependent) low connection speed The use of cable modems within a standard cable television infrastructure for Internet access is commonly referred to as: a broadband cable b frame relay c metro-ethernet d dial-up - broadband cable What is the most common type of a DSL Internet access? a VDSL b ADSL c SDSL d UDSL - ADSL Which of the following solutions allows for simultaneous digital transmission of voice, video, data, and other network services over a PSTN? a WiMAX b PoE c ISDN
a 1G b 2G c 3G d 4G - 4G The characteristic feature of the Evolved High-Speed Packet Access (HSPA+) standard is the use of: a SDLC b MIMO c CSMA/CD d KVM - MIMO Which of the following Internet access types takes advantage of the traditional PSTN lines? a fiber-optic b mobile broadband c dial-up d WiMAX - dial-up The IEEE 802.16 standards defining high-speed, long-distance wireless communication are also commonly referred to as: a ISDN b SONET c WiMAX d HSPA+ - WiMAX In terms of size and reach, a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) can be placed between a LAN (smaller type of network) and a WAN (larger type of network). true or false - true Which of the following answers lists a more costly alternative to VPN? a dial-up b leased line c broadband cable d satelite - leased line T1 lines support data transfer rates of up to: a 1.544 mbps b 2.048 mbps
c 34.368 mbps d 44.736 mbps - 1.544 mbps Which of the following answers lists the maximum data transfer rate of an E connection? a 1.544 mbps b 2.048 mbps c 34.368 mbps d 44.736 mbps - 2.048 mbps T3 lines support data transfer rates of up to: a 1.544 mbps b 2.048 mbps c 34.368 mbps d 44.736 mbps - 44.736 mbps Which of the answers listed below refers to the maximum data transfer rate of an E connection? a 1.544 mbps b 2.048 mbps c 34.368 mbps d 44.736 mbps - 34.368 mbps Optical Carrier (OC) transmission rate specifications adhere to a pattern whereby OC prefix is followed by a number designating a multiple of the base unit of 51.84 Mbps. true or false - true Metro-Ethernet" is a general term for a computer network larger than a Local Area Network (LAN) and based on Ethernet standards. true or false - true An OC-3 line supports transmission rates of up to: a 1.544 mbps b 51.54 mbps c 44.736 mbps d 155.52 mbps - 155.52 mbps Which of the answers listed below refers to the maximum data transfer rate of an OC- connection?
copper cabling connector Which of the following connector types would be used for terminating a T-1 line? a RJ- b RJ-48C c UTP d RJ-11 - RJ-48C The RS-232 standard defines an interface for parallel data transmission method. true or false - false Which of the following connector types are used for connecting devices to a RS- port? (Select 2 answers) a RJ- b DB-9/DE- c ST d RJ-48C e DB- f LC - DB- A device used for the purpose of extending the length of various types of network cable runs is commonly referred to as: a coupler b media converter c amplifier d cable certifier - coupler Which of the connector types listed below are used with coaxial cabling? (Select 2 answers) a ST b MT-RJ c BNC d LC e F- connector - BNC F-connector A mechanism that allows for connecting one set of wires with another set of wires in telecommunications closets or local area networks (LANs) is commonly referred to as a punch-down block
true or false - true The 66 block (older type/used in telephony) and the 110 block (newer type/used in networking) are examples of punch-down blocks. true or false - true One of the differences between the UTP and STP cabling is that STP cable takes advantage of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources. true or false - true Which of the cabling types listed below provide(s) protection against an outside signal interference? (Select all that apply) a UTP b coaxial c fiber-optic d STP - coaxial fiber-optic STP In twisted-pair cabling wires are grouped into pairs and wires in each pair are twisted around each other in order to reduce: a cross-talk b cable diameter c collisions d bend radius - cross-talk What is the typical cable segment length for a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable? a 33 meters b 55 meters c 100 meters d 250 meters - 100 meters Category 3 (CAT3) cable is a 10 Mbps twisted-pair copper cable used in telephone wiring. true or false - true
true or false - true Materials from which the plenum-rated cable's cover is made include low-smoke polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and fluorinated ethylene polymer (FEP). true or false - true Which of the following answers list examples of coaxial cabling types? (Select 2 answers) a STP b RG- c multimode fiber d UTP e RG- f single mode fiber - RG- RG-
