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Nevada (NV) C-7 Elevation & Conveyance
Contractor Practice Exam
SECTION 1: LICENSING & REGULATORY FRAMEWORK (Questions 1-40)
================= Question 1 What is the primary mission of the Nevada State Contractors Board (NSCB)? A) To set construction wage standards for all Nevada projects B) To oversee licensing and discipline for contractors in Nevada C) To develop statewide building codes for elevator systems D) To register construction trade unions Correct Answer: B Explanation: The NSCB's primary mission is to regulate contractor licensing, ensure compliance, and discipline contractors to protect public safety and promote quality construction. Question 2 Which Nevada contractor license classification is required for work on elevators, escalators, and conveying systems? A) C- 5
B) C- 7
C) C- 10
D) C- 15
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The C-7 classification specifically pertains to elevator, lift, and conveyance systems, including installation, maintenance, and repair. Question 3 According to NAC 624.250, which best describes the scope of work for a classification C-7 license? A) Only escalator installation and repair B) Fabrication and installation of systems to transport persons, animals, and chattels in elevators, conveyors, dumbwaiters, and escalators, including appurtenant controls, signal systems, devices, and equipment C) Only elevator and dumbwaiter installation D) General building construction unrelated to conveyance Correct Answer: B Explanation: NAC 624.250 specifies that C-7 licensees may work on elevators, conveyors, dumbwaiters, escalators, moving walks, and pneumatic tube systems, including appurtenant controls, signal systems, devices, and equipment. Question 4 Which C-7 subclassification covers installation of equipment to transfer people horizontally?
A) Only escalator installation B) Fabrication and installation of elevators and dumbwaiters, including any supplemental systems and equipment C) Moving walkway installation only D) Pneumatic tube systems only Correct Answer: B Explanation: Subclassification C-7a (Elevator and Dumbwaiter) authorizes the fabrication and installation of elevators and dumbwaiters, including any supplemental systems and equipment. Question 7 What are the four subclassifications under the C-7 Elevation & Conveyance license? A) C-7a (Elevator & Dumbwaiter), C-7b (Escalator & Conveyor), C-7c (Pneumatic Tube), C-7d (Moving Walkway) B) C-7a (Traction), C-7b (Hydraulic), C-7c (Pneumatic), C-7d (Moving Walkway) C) C-7a (Passenger), C-7b (Freight), C-7c (Residential), C-7d (Commercial) D) C-7a (New Install), C-7b (Repair), C-7c (Maintenance), C-7d (Modernization) Correct Answer: A Explanation: NAC 624.250(2) specifies these four subclassifications for the C- 7 license. Question 8
What is the minimum experience requirement for the qualifying individual for a C-7 license in Nevada? A) 2 years within the last 10 years at journeyman level B) 4 years within the last 15 years at journeyman level, or as a foreman, supervisor, or contractor C) 6 years within the last 10 years D) 8 years within the last 20 years Correct Answer: B Explanation: The qualifying individual must have, within the 15 years immediately before filing the application, at least 4 years of experience at a journeyman level, or as a foreman, supervisor, or contractor. Question 9 A person who holds a classification C-7 license may perform work in how many of the subclassifications without additional licensing? A) Only one subclassification must be selected B) All four subclassifications are authorized under a single C-7 license C) Two subclassifications maximum per license D) Subclassifications require separate examination for each Correct Answer: B Explanation: A C-7 license covers all four subclassifications (elevator, escalator, pneumatic tube, moving walkway) under one license. Question 10
Correct Answer: D Explanation: As of 2025, Nevada's minimum wage is $12.00 per hour for employees who do not receive health benefits, subject to annual adjustments . Question 42 Which business structure typically offers the most simplicity and direct control for a sole-proprietor contractor? A) Corporation B) Limited Liability Company (LLC) C) Sole proprietorship D) Partnership Correct Answer: C Explanation: A sole proprietorship is the simplest form, offering direct control without the need for formal registration beyond local licensing, but with unlimited personal liability. Question 43 Which of the following is a disadvantage of forming a C-Corporation for a contractor business? A) Limited liability protection B) Double taxation of income C) Ease of transfer of ownership D) Fewer regulatory requirements
Correct Answer: B Explanation: C-Corporations are subject to double taxation—once at the corporate level and again on dividends to shareholders—making it a disadvantage for some contractors. Question 44 Which financial statement provides a snapshot of a contractor's assets, liabilities, and equity at a specific point in time? A) Income statement B) Balance sheet C) Cash flow statement D) Profit and loss statement Correct Answer: B Explanation: The balance sheet provides a snapshot of a contractor's assets, liabilities, and equity at a specific point in time, helping assess financial stability. Question 45 What is the purpose of the Nevada Prompt Payment Act? A) To require contractors to pay subcontractors within a specified timeframe B) To regulate insurance requirements for contractors C) To establish licensing fees for elevator work D) To define work hours for conveyance contractors Correct Answer: A
Question 48 How does Nevada law distinguish between an independent contractor and an employee? A) Based solely on the contractor's written agreement B) Depending on the level of control over work and independence C) By the amount of wages paid annually D) Based on whether the worker owns any equipment Correct Answer: B Explanation: Nevada law considers factors such as control over work, independence, and how the worker is paid to determine classification. Question 49 Which document is essential for interpreting the scope of work and technical details in a construction project? A) Contract agreement B) Blueprints and construction drawings C) Payment application D) Safety plan Correct Answer: B Explanation: Blueprints and construction drawings visually communicate technical details, scope, and specifications necessary for accurate project execution.
Question 50 When estimating quantities for a construction project, which method involves calculating the amount of materials based on plan dimensions? A) Cost analysis B) Quantity take-off C) Bid proposal development D) Schedule development Correct Answer: B Explanation: Quantity take-off involves measuring and calculating the quantities of materials required from plans and drawings to prepare accurate bids. Question 51 Which type of contract involves the contractor being paid based on actual costs plus a fee? A) Lump sum contract B) Cost-plus contract C) Unit price contract D) Fixed-price contract Correct Answer: B Explanation: Cost-plus contracts involve payment based on actual costs plus an additional fee or percentage for profit. Question 52
A) 30 days B) 60 days C) 90 days D) 120 days Correct Answer: C Explanation: In Nevada, a mechanic's lien must be filed within 90 days after the completion of the work or the last provision of materials. Question 55 Which project management tool graphically displays project tasks against a timeline? A) Gantt chart B) Flowchart C) Bar graph D) Pie chart Correct Answer: A Explanation: Gantt charts graphically display project tasks against a timeline, illustrating start/end dates and overlaps. Question 56 What is the Critical Path Method (CPM) used for in construction management? A) To determine the shortest project duration by identifying critical tasks that cannot be delayed
B) To assign costs to project components C) To schedule safety meetings D) To calculate project profit margins Correct Answer: A Explanation: CPM identifies the sequence of crucial tasks that determine the minimum project duration, helping manage delays. Question 57 Which safety document details hazards, mitigation measures, and safety procedures for a construction project? A) Project schedule B) Safety plan C) Contract agreement D) Budget report Correct Answer: B Explanation: A safety plan outlines hazards, safety procedures, responsibilities, and protocols to ensure a safe working environment. Question 58 OSHA's Lockout/Tagout (LOTO) procedure is designed to: A) Prevent electrical shocks during maintenance work B) Ensure machinery cannot be operated during servicing C) Protect workers from fall hazards
Correct Answer: C Explanation: An application processing fee of $300 must be submitted with the application. =============================================================== ================= SECTION 3: ASME A17.1 SAFETY CODE & ELEVATOR SYSTEMS (Questions 81-
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Question 81 Which code governs elevator safety in Nevada? A) NEC (NFPA 70) B) OSHA 29 CFR 1926 C) ASME A17.1/CSA B44 Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators D) NFPA 70E Correct Answer: C Explanation: ASME A17.1 is the Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators, adopted by Nevada for elevator safety regulation. Question 82 What is the primary function of a governor in an elevator system? A) Control car speed under normal operation
B) Provide emergency lighting C) Activate overspeed protection by triggering safety devices D) Regulate door opening speed Correct Answer: C Explanation: The governor detects overspeed conditions and triggers safety devices to stop the elevator. Question 83 Which component supports the weight of the elevator car and counterweight in a traction system? A) Guide rails B) Hoist ropes C) Drive sheave D) Buffer springs Correct Answer: B Explanation: Hoist ropes bear the load and connect the car and counterweight over the sheave. Question 84 What is the purpose of a counterweight in an elevator system? A) Increase speed B) Balance the car load to reduce motor load C) Provide emergency braking
Explanation: Guide rails ensure smooth and safe vertical movement of the car and counterweight. Question 87 Which device stops the elevator car during free fall? A) Brake B) Governor C) Safety gear D) Buffer Correct Answer: C Explanation: Safety gear clamps onto the guide rails to stop the car in emergencies. Question 88 What type of elevator uses a plunger to raise and lower the car? A) Traction elevator B) Hydraulic elevator C) Pneumatic elevator D) Rack and pinion elevator Correct Answer: B Explanation: Hydraulic elevators use fluid pressure to move a piston that raises and lowers the car.
Question 89 What is the role of the controller in an elevator system? A) Power supply distribution B) Process inputs and direct car movement decisions C) Support cables D) Operate buffers Correct Answer: B Explanation: The controller processes inputs from hall calls, car operating panels, and sensors to direct movement decisions. Question 90 What is meant by "rated load" in elevator terminology? A) Maximum speed in feet per minute B) Maximum safe carrying capacity in pounds or kilograms C) Minimum load required for operation D) Counterweight load Correct Answer: B Explanation: Rated load is the maximum weight the elevator can safely carry. Question 91 Which safety feature prevents elevator doors from opening between floors? A) Interlock (door lock)
