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New Jersey Emergency Medical Responder Exam Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answ, Exams of Medical Genetics

New Jersey Institute of Technology (NJIT)Medical Genetics

New Jersey Emergency Medical Responder Exam Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 02/01/2026

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New Jersey Emergency Medical Responder
Exam Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf
1. The primary purpose of an Emergency Medical Responder is to:
A. Transport patients to the hospital
B. Provide immediate lifesaving care
C. Diagnose medical conditions
D. Prescribe medications
EMRs are trained to provide immediate, basic lifesaving interventions
until higher-level EMS arrives.
2. Which of the following is the first step in the patient assessment
process?
A. Obtain vital signs
B. Ensure scene safety
C. Perform a secondary assessment
D. Administer oxygen
Scene safety ensures both the responder and patient are not exposed to
hazards before care begins.
3. The “ABC” approach in emergency care stands for:
A. Airway, Blood, Circulation
B. Airway, Breathing, Consciousness
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Download New Jersey Emergency Medical Responder Exam Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answ and more Exams Medical Genetics in PDF only on Docsity!

New Jersey Emergency Medical Responder

Exam Questions And Correct Answers (Verified

Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant

Download Pdf

  1. The primary purpose of an Emergency Medical Responder is to: A. Transport patients to the hospital B. Provide immediate lifesaving care C. Diagnose medical conditions D. Prescribe medications EMRs are trained to provide immediate, basic lifesaving interventions until higher-level EMS arrives.
  2. Which of the following is the first step in the patient assessment process? A. Obtain vital signs B. Ensure scene safety C. Perform a secondary assessment D. Administer oxygen Scene safety ensures both the responder and patient are not exposed to hazards before care begins.
  3. The “ABC” approach in emergency care stands for: A. Airway, Blood, Circulation B. Airway, Breathing, Consciousness

C. Airway, Breathing, Circulation D. Alert, Breathing, Circulation Airway, Breathing, and Circulation are the primary priorities in patient assessment and intervention.

  1. When performing CPR on an adult, the recommended compression rate is: A. 60–80 per minute B. 80–100 per minute C. 100 – 120 per minute D. 120–140 per minute Current guidelines recommend 100–120 compressions per minute for effective CPR.
  2. How deep should chest compressions be for an adult during CPR? A. 1 inch B. 1.5 inches C. 2 – 2.4 inches (5–6 cm) D. 3 inches Proper depth ensures adequate blood circulation during CPR.
  3. The main purpose of an automated external defibrillator (AED) is to: A. Restore normal heart rhythm B. Provide oxygen C. Stop bleeding D. Monitor blood pressure An AED analyzes heart rhythm and delivers a shock if needed to correct life-threatening arrhythmias.

C. Conscious with chest pain D. Having a seizure The recovery position helps maintain airway patency and prevents aspiration in an unconscious but breathing patient.

  1. When controlling severe external bleeding, the EMR should first: A. Apply a tourniquet B. Apply direct pressure C. Elevate the limb D. Apply ice Direct pressure is the primary and most effective way to control external bleeding.
  2. Signs of shock include all EXCEPT: A. Rapid pulse B. Pale, clammy skin C. Warm, flushed skin D. Rapid, shallow breathing Shock typically causes cool, pale skin; warm and flushed skin is not a typical sign.
  3. The correct ratio of compressions to breaths for one-rescuer adult CPR is: A. 15: B. 20: C. 30: D. 40:

Current guidelines recommend 30 compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths for adults.

  1. The Heimlich maneuver is used for a patient who is: A. Unconscious B. Choking with airway obstruction C. Having a seizure D. In shock Abdominal thrusts are performed to expel an object blocking the airway.
  2. The proper method to open an airway in an unconscious adult is: A. Head tilt, chin lift B. Jaw thrust C. Head tilt–chin lift D. Neck extension The head tilt–chin lift is standard for adults without suspected spinal injury.
  3. When a spinal injury is suspected, the airway should be opened using: A. Head tilt–chin lift B. Jaw-thrust maneuver C. Neck hyperextension D. No airway maneuver The jaw-thrust opens the airway while minimizing spinal movement.
  4. The first priority in caring for a burn patient is: A. Apply ointment B. Stop the burning process
  1. Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of adequate breathing? A. Pulse rate B. Chest rise and fall C. Skin color D. Pupillary reaction Visible chest movement confirms air is entering and leaving the lungs.
  2. An EMR arrives at a patient with a suspected stroke. The priority action is: A. Rapidly assess and activate EMS B. Begin CPR C. Administer oxygen D. Give oral fluids Time is critical in stroke care; rapid assessment and EMS activation are essential.
  3. A patient has partial-thickness burns on the arm. Which treatment is appropriate? A. Immerse in ice water B. Apply butter C. Cover with a sterile, non-stick dressing D. Rub with alcohol Sterile dressings protect the burn while preventing infection; ice or home remedies can worsen injury.
  4. The term “cyanosis” refers to: A. Redness of skin B. Bluish discoloration of skin

C. Yellowing of eyes D. Swelling of extremities Cyanosis indicates inadequate oxygenation and possible respiratory or cardiac compromise.

  1. When responding to a chemical exposure, the EMR’s first priority is: A. Provide oxygen B. Protect self and remove patient from the hazard C. Wash the chemical into the skin D. Start CPR Responder safety is paramount before attempting patient care.
  2. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses: A. Vital signs B. Respiratory function C. Level of consciousness D. Pain severity The GCS provides a standardized way to measure neurologic function.
  3. The proper compression depth for an infant during CPR is: A. 1 inch B. About 1.5 inches (4 cm) C. 2 inches D. 3 inches Infant compressions require less depth than adults to avoid injury while maintaining perfusion.
  1. The proper method of lifting a patient to prevent back injury is: A. Bend at the waist B. Bend at the knees and lift with legs C. Twist while lifting D. Use arms only Using the legs reduces strain on the back and lowers the risk of injury.
  2. An EMR is treating a patient with heat stroke. The most important intervention is: A. Rapidly cool the patient B. Give fluids orally C. Provide blankets D. Keep in a warm environment Heat stroke is life-threatening; rapid cooling prevents organ damage.
  3. Which of the following is true regarding seizure management? A. Restrain the patient tightly B. Protect the patient from injury and maintain airway C. Place objects in the mouth D. Give water during the seizure Preventing injury and ensuring airway patency is key; objects in the mouth can cause harm.
  4. During a patient assessment, “SAMPLE” history includes all EXCEPT: A. Signs and symptoms B. Level of consciousness

C. Medications D. Past medical history SAMPLE stands for Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake, Events leading up.

  1. A patient with difficulty breathing and wheezing likely has: A. Asthma or respiratory obstruction B. Heart attack C. Stroke D. Hypoglycemia Wheezing is indicative of airway narrowing often seen in asthma or allergic reactions.
  2. Which pulse site is commonly used during CPR in adults? A. Carotid B. Radial C. Carotid D. Brachial The carotid pulse is preferred because it is more reliable during cardiac arrest.
  3. When assessing a patient with suspected internal bleeding, EMRs should look for: A. External cuts only B. Signs of shock such as pallor, rapid pulse, hypotension C. Joint swelling D. Rash Internal bleeding may not be visible externally, but signs of shock indicate significant blood loss.

C. Irregular breathing D. Low blood pressure Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate above the normal adult range (>100 bpm).

  1. Which type of shock is caused by severe allergic reaction? A. Hypovolemic B. Cardiogenic C. Anaphylactic D. Neurogenic Anaphylactic shock results from a massive histamine response causing vasodilation and airway compromise.
  2. During childbirth, if the umbilical cord is around the baby’s neck, the EMR should: A. Pull the cord tightly B. Gently slip the cord over the baby’s shoulder or neck if possible C. Cut the cord immediately D. Apply pressure to the cord Careful handling prevents cord compression and maintains blood flow to the baby.
  3. When caring for a patient with a suspected poisoning, EMRs should: A. Induce vomiting immediately B. Call poison control for instructions C. Give water to drink D. Give milk

Poison control provides guidance specific to the substance and patient condition.

  1. Which of the following is considered a medical emergency? A. Mild headache B. Chest pain with shortness of breath C. Minor cut D. Sprained finger Chest pain with respiratory compromise can indicate a life-threatening condition.
  2. A patient is experiencing an asthma attack and does not improve after using their inhaler. The EMR should: A. Wait and monitor B. Activate EMS immediately C. Give oral glucose D. Lay patient flat Failure to respond to medication requires urgent EMS intervention.
  3. Proper handwashing technique requires: A. Rinsing only B. Scrubbing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds C. Using water only D. Quick splash of soap Proper hand hygiene reduces transmission of pathogens.
  4. A patient with hypothermia may present with: A. Hot, dry skin B. Shivering, confusion, pale skin

C. Only use on conscious patients D. Place under the patient’s chin A proper seal ensures effective ventilation and oxygenation.

  1. A patient is choking and becomes unresponsive. The EMR should: A. Continue abdominal thrusts while standing B. Begin CPR and check the mouth for obstruction before breaths C. Give water D. Call family first Unresponsiveness requires CPR; visual checks for obstruction before rescue breaths can prevent aspiration.
  2. Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia? A. Confusion B. Sweating C. Both A and B D. Rash Low blood sugar causes neurological symptoms and diaphoresis.
  3. In the event of a fire, the EMR should: A. Enter immediately to rescue patients B. Ensure scene safety and activate fire response C. Ignore alarms and treat patients D. Only treat outside the building Responder and patient safety are priorities; professional fire response is required.
  1. The “golden hour” refers to: A. Time it takes for EMS to arrive B. Critical period following traumatic injury when definitive care improves survival C. The first hour of the day D. Time for CPR Early, definitive care within the first hour can significantly affect outcomes in trauma patients.
  2. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for a nosebleed? A. Tilt head back B. Lean forward and apply direct pressure C. Pack with cotton D. Apply ice to the neck Leaning forward prevents blood from entering the airway; direct pressure stops bleeding.
  3. The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient is: A. Vomit B. The tongue C. Blood D. Swelling The tongue can fall back and block the airway in unconscious patients.
  4. When caring for a patient with anaphylaxis, the EMR should: A. Give oral antihistamines only B. Administer epinephrine if available and activate EMS
  1. Which of the following should be avoided when splinting a fracture? A. Immobilizing the joints above and below B. Padding the splint C. Straightening a deformed limb forcefully D. Checking circulation after application Forceful manipulation can worsen injury; splints stabilize in the position found.
  2. What is the first step in controlling external bleeding? A. Apply a tourniquet immediately B. Apply direct pressure C. Elevate the limb only D. Clean the wound first Direct pressure is the most effective initial intervention.
  3. In a suspected spinal injury, moving the patient should be: A. Immediate for comfort B. Only with proper spinal immobilization techniques C. Done without caution D. Done after CPR only Improper movement can exacerbate spinal injury.
  4. Which of the following indicates adequate chest compressions during CPR? A. Patient awakens B. Chest rises visibly C. Heart rate increases D. Pulse disappears

Chest rise ensures effective ventilation during CPR.

  1. When using an AED, the EMR should: A. Touch the patient while analyzing B. Ensure no one touches the patient during analysis and shock delivery C. Cover pads with clothing D. Remove jewelry No contact ensures accurate rhythm analysis and safe shock delivery.
  2. The first priority in multiple casualty incidents (MCI) is: A. Treat minor injuries first B. Ensure scene safety and perform triage C. Move all patients immediately D. Provide comfort to everyone Scene safety and triage prioritize life-threatening conditions efficiently.
  3. Which type of burn is characterized by redness and pain but no blisters? A. Second-degree B. First-degree C. Third-degree D. Fourth-degree First-degree burns involve only the epidermis, causing redness and pain.
  4. Signs of severe allergic reaction include all EXCEPT: A. Swelling of lips or tongue B. Hives C. Difficulty breathing D. Low fever