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New Jersey Speech Language Pathology
Praxis Examination Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
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- Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for tongue movement? A. Vagus (X) B. Trigeminal (V) C. Hypoglossal (XII) D. Facial (VII) Rationale: The hypoglossal nerve (XII) innervates the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue, controlling tongue movement.
- A patient demonstrates difficulty comprehending spoken language but can read and write adequately. This is characteristic of: A. Broca’s aphasia B. Wernicke’s aphasia C. Global aphasia D. Conduction aphasia Rationale: Wernicke’s aphasia involves impaired language comprehension with fluent but nonsensical speech, while reading and writing may be relatively preserved.
- The primary acoustic cue for distinguishing between /p/ and /b/ is: A. Place of articulation B. Manner of articulation C. Voice onset time (VOT) D. Nasality
Rationale: Voice onset time differentiates voiceless /p/ from voiced /b/; /p/ has a longer VOT.
- Which assessment tool is standardized for evaluating speech sound disorders in children? A. Beck Depression Inventory B. Mini-Mental State Exam C. Goldman-Fristoe Test of Articulation D. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test Rationale: The Goldman-Fristoe Test is a widely used standardized assessment for articulation in children.
- A 3-year-old child produces "tat" for "cat" consistently. This error is an example of: A. Backing B. Fronting C. Gliding D. Stopping Rationale: Fronting occurs when sounds that should be produced at the back of the mouth (/k/, /g/) are replaced with sounds produced at the front (/t/, /d/).
- During a language sample, a clinician counts the number of morphemes a child uses. This measure is known as: A. Syntax analysis B. Pragmatic assessment C. Mean length of utterance (MLU) D. Semantic mapping Rationale: MLU measures the average number of morphemes per utterance, commonly used to assess language development.
- The most common cause of acquired apraxia of speech in adults is: A. Parkinson’s disease B. Stroke (CVA) C. Multiple sclerosis D. Traumatic brain injury Rationale: Stroke affecting the left hemisphere is the most frequent cause of acquired apraxia of speech in adults.
C. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test D. Stuttering Severity Instrument Rationale: CELF Preschool–2 assesses expressive and receptive language skills in children.
- The most appropriate treatment approach for dysphagia due to reduced tongue base retraction is: A. LSVT (Lee Silverman Voice Treatment) B. Expiratory muscle strength training C. Effortful swallow D. Melodic intonation therapy Rationale: The effortful swallow technique increases tongue base movement and bolus clearance during swallowing.
- A clinician notices a client frequently omits /s/ in clusters (e.g., "top" for "stop"). This error pattern is: A. Stopping B. Cluster reduction C. Gliding D. Fronting Rationale: Cluster reduction occurs when a consonant cluster is simplified, often by omitting one of the consonants.
- The primary auditory cortex is located in which lobe? A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Occipital Rationale: The primary auditory cortex is in the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe.
- Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expressions and some aspects of taste? A. Trigeminal (V) B. Facial (VII) C. Glossopharyngeal (IX) D. Vagus (X) Rationale: The facial nerve (VII) innervates facial muscles and conveys taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
- The hallmark characteristic of Broca’s aphasia is: A. Fluent, nonsensical speech B. Non-fluent, effortful speech with relatively preserved comprehension C. Severe comprehension deficits with intact repetition D. Impaired repetition only Rationale: Broca’s aphasia involves non-fluent, effortful speech with good comprehension and poor repetition.
- In a voice assessment, maximum phonation time (MPT) is measured to evaluate: A. Resonance B. Respiratory-phonatory efficiency C. Articulation accuracy D. Speech rate Rationale: MPT assesses how long a person can sustain a vowel, reflecting respiratory and phonatory function.
- Which type of dysarthria is commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease? A. Spastic B. Ataxic C. Hypokinetic D. Hyperkinetic Rationale: Hypokinetic dysarthria, characterized by reduced loudness, monopitch, and imprecise articulation, is typical in Parkinson’s disease.
- Which intervention is most appropriate for childhood apraxia of speech? A. Oral-motor exercises only B. Voice therapy C. Motor-based speech therapy with repetition and practice of functional words D. Non-speech cognitive training Rationale: Motor-based approaches targeting speech movement patterns are most effective for childhood apraxia of speech.
C. AAC supplements or replaces speech for individuals with complex communication needs. D. AAC is only appropriate for children under 5. Rationale: AAC can be used to support or replace speech, depending on the individual’s needs.
- A clinician wants to assess a 5-year-old’s phonological processes. Which tool is appropriate? A. CELF B. MMSE C. Khan-Lewis Phonological Analysis (KLPA) D. Stuttering Severity Instrument Rationale: KLPA analyzes phonological processes in children, complementing articulation tests.
- A patient demonstrates difficulty swallowing thin liquids but not solids. This is characteristic of: A. Oral phase dysphagia B. Pharyngeal phase dysphagia C. Esophageal phase dysphagia D. Cognitive-communication disorder Rationale: Thin liquids often trigger aspiration in the pharyngeal phase due to delayed swallow reflex or reduced airway protection.
- Which is a common characteristic of cluttering? A. Slow speech rate B. Rapid, disorganized speech with excessive breaks C. Consistent sound substitutions D. Hypernasality Rationale: Cluttering involves a rapid, irregular speech rate, with disorganized articulation and omissions.
- In evaluating fluency disorders, secondary behaviors refer to: A. Repetitions B. Prolongations C. Physical or behavioral reactions to stuttering (e.g., eye blinking, head movements) D. Nasality
Rationale: Secondary behaviors are learned reactions to stuttering, distinct from core stuttering behaviors.
- The purpose of the Modified Barium Swallow Study (MBSS) is to: A. Evaluate cognitive-linguistic abilities B. Measure articulation accuracy C. Visualize swallowing and identify aspiration risk D. Assess phonatory function Rationale: MBSS uses fluoroscopy to examine oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal swallowing phases.
- A 4-year-old produces "wabbit" for "rabbit." This is an example of: A. Fronting B. Stopping C. Gliding D. Cluster reduction Rationale: Gliding involves replacing liquids (/r/, /l/) with glides (/w/, /j/), common in young children.
- Which type of assessment provides information about a child’s functional communication in natural environments? A. Standardized test B. Oral-motor exam C. Curriculum-based or authentic assessment D. MRI Rationale: Functional or authentic assessments observe communication in naturalistic settings, providing real-world insights.
- Which approach is most appropriate for treating hypernasality due to velopharyngeal dysfunction? A. Fluency shaping B. Resonance therapy and possible surgical management C. Vocal function exercises D. Apraxia therapy Rationale: Resonance therapy targets velopharyngeal closure, and surgery may be needed for structural deficits.
- Which disorder is characterized by involuntary movements affecting speech, such as dystonia or chorea?
D. Correct resonance Rationale: Voice therapy focuses on eliminating behaviors causing nodules and teaching healthy voice habits.
- A child’s error pattern includes substituting /t/ for /k/ and /d/ for /g/. This indicates: A. Stopping B. Fronting C. Gliding D. Cluster reduction Rationale: Fronting involves producing alveolar sounds instead of velar sounds.
- Which intervention is evidence-based for adult aphasia rehabilitation? A. Oral-motor exercises B. Constraint-Induced Language Therapy (CILT) C. AAC exclusively D. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy Rationale: CILT encourages intensive use of verbal language while constraining compensatory strategies, improving communication outcomes.
- In speech acoustics, formants refer to: A. Voice quality B. Nasality C. Resonant frequencies of the vocal tract D. Intensity only Rationale: Formants are resonant frequencies that define vowel quality in speech.
- Which population is most at risk for dysphagia due to reduced pharyngeal contraction? A. Children with articulation disorders B. Individuals with cleft palate only C. Older adults and patients post-stroke D. Persons with voice disorders only Rationale: Reduced pharyngeal contraction can lead to aspiration and is common in older adults and stroke patients.
- When evaluating a child for phonological disorders, what is most important? A. Only assessing isolated sounds B. Focusing on oral-motor strength C. Analyzing error patterns across multiple words and contexts D. Measuring loudness Rationale: Phonological assessments analyze patterns of errors, not just individual sounds.
- A patient presents with monotone speech, imprecise consonants, and reduced stress. This is characteristic of: A. Spastic dysarthria B. Ataxic dysarthria C. Hypokinetic dysarthria D. Hyperkinetic dysarthria Rationale: Hypokinetic dysarthria, seen in Parkinson’s disease, includes monopitch, imprecise articulation, and reduced stress.
- Which cranial nerve is primarily involved in swallowing? A. Trigeminal (V) B. Facial (VII) C. Hypoglossal (XII) D. Glossopharyngeal (IX) and Vagus (X) Rationale: Swallowing involves multiple cranial nerves, including IX (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagus) for pharyngeal and laryngeal control.
- A clinician wants to assess a client’s expressive vocabulary. Which tool is most appropriate? A. GFTA B. SSI C. Expressive Vocabulary Test (EVT) D. MBSS Rationale: EVT measures a client’s ability to name objects and express vocabulary.
- Which therapy approach is commonly used for progressive neurogenic speech disorders? A. Motor-based therapy only
B. Apraxia of speech C. Cluttering D. Phonological disorder Rationale: Apraxia of speech is a motor planning disorder characterized by inconsistent errors and difficulty coordinating speech movements.
- Which test assesses auditory discrimination skills in children? A. GFTA B. CELF C. Auditory Discrimination Test (ADT) D. EVT Rationale: The ADT evaluates a child’s ability to distinguish between speech sounds, important for phonological development.
- A child produces “tat” for “cat” and “doe” for “go.” This pattern reflects: A. Stopping B. Fronting C. Gliding D. Cluster reduction Rationale: Fronting occurs when velar sounds (/k/, /g/) are replaced with alveolar sounds (/t/, /d/).
- In adults, the most common cause of dysphagia is: A. Cleft palate B. Developmental delay C. Stroke (CVA) D. Cerebral palsy Rationale: Stroke is the leading cause of adult dysphagia due to impairment of oral and pharyngeal phases of swallowing.
- Which cranial nerve provides motor innervation to most muscles of the pharynx and larynx? A. Trigeminal (V) B. Facial (VII) C. Hypoglossal (XII) D. Vagus (X)
Rationale: The vagus nerve controls most pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles, essential for swallowing and voice.
- A client’s speech is rapid, imprecise, and has irregular articulatory breakdowns. This is characteristic of: A. Spastic dysarthria B. Hypokinetic dysarthria C. Ataxic dysarthria D. Hyperkinetic dysarthria Rationale: Ataxic dysarthria results from cerebellar damage, causing irregular articulatory timing and a “drunken” speech quality.
- Which intervention is evidence-based for children with phonological disorders? A. Oral-motor exercises exclusively B. Voice therapy C. Minimal pairs therapy D. Fluency shaping Rationale: Minimal pairs therapy targets phonological contrasts and helps children reorganize their sound system.
- A patient demonstrates decreased loudness, monopitch, and breathy voice. This profile is most consistent with: A. Spastic dysarthria B. Hypokinetic dysarthria C. Ataxic dysarthria D. Apraxia of speech Rationale: Hypokinetic dysarthria, often associated with Parkinson’s disease, presents with reduced loudness, monopitch, and breathiness.
- Which assessment tool is best for evaluating language comprehension in adults? A. GFTA B. Western Aphasia Battery (WAB) C. SSI D. KLPA Rationale: WAB evaluates both expressive and receptive language abilities in adults with aphasia.
D. Reflexive Rationale: The oral phase of swallowing is under voluntary control, involving chewing and preparing the bolus.
- Which intervention is most effective for hypernasality due to velopharyngeal insufficiency? A. Fluency shaping B. Resonance therapy and surgical correction if needed C. LSVT D. Minimal pairs therapy Rationale: Hypernasality from velopharyngeal insufficiency may be treated with resonance therapy; surgery is considered for structural deficits.
- A child demonstrates difficulty maintaining topic and poor conversational repair strategies. This is a deficit in: A. Syntax B. Semantics C. Pragmatics D. Phonology Rationale: Pragmatics involves the social use of language, including maintaining topics and repairing communication breakdowns.
- Which assessment provides information about motor speech disorders in adults? A. CELF B. KLPA C. Apraxia Battery for Adults (ABA) D. EVT Rationale: The ABA assesses speech motor planning and execution in adults with apraxia of speech.
- Which disorder is characterized by sudden, involuntary movements affecting speech, such as dystonia? A. Hypokinetic dysarthria B. Ataxic dysarthria C. Hyperkinetic dysarthria D. Spastic dysarthria
Rationale: Hyperkinetic dysarthria results from involuntary movements due to basal ganglia dysfunction.
- A child says “tat” for “cat” and “doe” for “go.” This pattern is an example of: A. Stopping B. Fronting C. Gliding D. Cluster reduction Rationale: Fronting replaces velar consonants (/k/, /g/) with alveolar consonants (/t/, /d/).
- A clinician uses “eat the cookie” and “push the car” to assess sentence imitation. This evaluates: A. Articulation B. Fluency C. Expressive language D. Voice Rationale: Sentence imitation tasks assess expressive language ability, including syntax and morphology.
- Which dysarthria is associated with spasticity, slow rate, and strained-strangled voice? A. Spastic dysarthria B. Hypokinetic dysarthria C. Ataxic dysarthria D. Hyperkinetic dysarthria Rationale: Spastic dysarthria arises from upper motor neuron lesions and presents with slow, effortful speech and strained-strangled voice.
- A clinician notes a patient has limited jaw movement and weak lip closure. This assessment focuses on: A. Phonological processes B. Oral-motor function C. Receptive language D. Pragmatics Rationale: Oral-motor evaluation assesses strength, range of motion, and coordination of speech articulators.
D. Hypoglossal (XII) Rationale: The glossopharyngeal nerve conveys taste sensations from the posterior third of the tongue.
- Which intervention is used for increasing vocal loudness in hypophonia? A. Resonance therapy B. LSVT LOUD C. Fluency shaping D. Apraxia therapy Rationale: LSVT LOUD targets vocal intensity and quality in individuals with Parkinson’s disease.
- Which standardized test is used to assess articulation in children? A. CELF B. Goldman-Fristoe Test of Articulation (GFTA) C. EVT D. SSI Rationale: GFTA evaluates articulation accuracy in children.
- A client’s speech is rapid, with irregular pauses and omissions. This is characteristic of: A. Apraxia of speech B. Spastic dysarthria C. Cluttering D. Hyperkinetic dysarthria Rationale: Cluttering involves rapid, disorganized speech with frequent omissions and irregular pauses.
- Which therapy approach is evidence-based for stuttering? A. Minimal pairs therapy B. Oral-motor exercises C. Fluency shaping and stuttering modification D. LSVT LOUD Rationale: Fluency shaping and stuttering modification techniques reduce stuttering frequency and improve speech fluency.
- Which phase of swallowing is involuntary and involves the pharynx and larynx?
A. Oral B. Pharyngeal C. Oral preparatory D. Esophageal Rationale: The pharyngeal phase is involuntary, moving the bolus from the pharynx to the esophagus while protecting the airway.
- A child says “wawa” for “rabbit.” This is an example of: A. Fronting B. Gliding C. Stopping D. Cluster reduction Rationale: Gliding occurs when liquids (/r/, /l/) are replaced by glides (/w/, /j/).
- A patient demonstrates involuntary vocal tics. This is associated with: A. Apraxia B. Hyperkinetic dysarthria C. Hypokinetic dysarthria D. Spastic dysarthria Rationale: Hyperkinetic dysarthria includes involuntary movements such as vocal tics or chorea affecting speech.
- Which assessment is appropriate for adult aphasia? A. GFTA B. KLPA C. Western Aphasia Battery (WAB) D. EVT Rationale: WAB evaluates language deficits in adults with aphasia.
- Which intervention is appropriate for a child with inconsistent speech errors? A. Oral-motor exercises B. Fluency shaping C. Motor-based speech therapy for apraxia D. Voice therapy Rationale: Inconsistent speech errors suggest childhood apraxia of speech, best treated with motor-based speech therapy.
