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NRNP 6665 Exam Review: Multiple Choice Questions and Answers, Quizzes of Nursing

University of Cambridge Nursing

A comprehensive review of key concepts for the nrnp 6665 exam, covering a wide range of topics in advanced practice nursing. It includes multiple choice questions with answers, designed to test knowledge and understanding of essential clinical skills and patient management strategies.

Typology: Quizzes

2023/2024

Available from 11/07/2024

john-kaburu-1 🇬🇧

180 documents

1 / 83

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NRNP 6665 Exam (100% verified CORRECT answers)

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1. What is the purpose of clinical research trials in the spectrum of translational research?

Examination of safety and effectiveness of various interventions

2. What is the purpose of Level II research?

To describe relationships among characteristics or variables

3. The care provided by APRNs is not limited by setting but by patient care needs.

A. True

B. False

4. APRN Consensus Model/LACE include all except:

A. Licensure

B. Accreditation

C. Certification

D. It’s the one that stars with an E (Education)

5. All of the following are core quality competencies expected of APRNs except:

A. Uses best evidence to improve care

B. Assumes advanced leadership role

C. Applies skills in peer review to promote culture of excellence

D. Evaluates organizational structures to improved care – Not sure??

6. What was an important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about primary

care preferences of patients?

A. Associations with area hospitals

B. Costs of ambulatory care

C. Ease of access to care.

D. The ratio of providers to patients

7. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for Medicare

and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?

A. Mandates for communication among primary caregivers and hospitalists

B. Penalties for failure to perform medication reconciliations at time of discharge

C. Reduction of payments for patients readmitted within 30 days after discharge

D. Requirements for written discharge instructions for patients and d. caregivers

8. Rules proposed by the various State Boards of Nursing must be approved by the

state Legislatures.

A. True

B. False

9. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for Medicare

and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?

Discover Quizzes of Nursing University of Cambridge

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What is the purpose of clinical research trials in the spectrum of translational research? Examination of safety and effectiveness of various interventions
What is the purpose of Level II research? To describe relationships among characteristics or variables
The care provided by APRNs is not limited by setting but by patient care needs. A. True B. False
APRN Consensus Model/LACE include all except: A. Licensure B. Accreditation C. Certification D. It’s the one that stars with an E (Education)
All of the following are core quality competencies expected of APRNs except: A. Uses best evidence to improve care B. Assumes advanced leadership role C. Applies skills in peer review to promote culture of excellence D. Evaluates organizational structures to improved care – Not sure??
What was an important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about primary care preferences of patients? A. Associations with area hospitals B. Costs of ambulatory care C. Ease of access to care. D. The ratio of providers to patients
To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy? A. Mandates for communication among primary caregivers and hospitalists B. Penalties for failure to perform medication reconciliations at time of discharge C. Reduction of payments for patients readmitted within 30 days after discharge D. Requirements for written discharge instructions for patients and d. caregivers
Rules proposed by the various State Boards of Nursing must be approved by the state Legislatures. A. True B. False
To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?

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What was an important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about primary care preferences of patients?
The Consensus Model for APRN regulation consists of which of the following roles? A. CNM B. CRNA C. APN D. CNS E All the Above A, B & C F. only
In reviewing the Total Percentage of Body surface area for adult burn patients each, leg, arm and head are noted evaluated at 9%. A. True B. False
What is the initial approach when obtaining a biopsy of a potential malignant melanoma lesion? A. Excisional biopsy B. Punch biopsy C. Shave biopsy D. Wide excision
Which of the following are independent practice competencies for APRNs? A. Prescribes medications B. Functions as an independent practitioner C. Employs screening and diagnostic strategies to arrive at diagnoses D. Manages health/illness strategies of patients and families over time. E. All the Above F. A, C & D only
A female patient is diagnosed with androgenetic alopecia. Which medication will the primary health care provider prescribe? a. Anthralin b. Cyclosporine c. Finasteride d Minoxidil
Agnes is a 72 y/o grandmother who comes to the clinic with an acute onset of severe eye pain. She has been having headaches, nausea and vomiting, and seeing halos around lights. Eye exam reveals cupping of optic nerve the pupil is oval and the cornea is cloudy. Her most likely diagnosis is:
Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever, sore throat, pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes. The most likely diagnosis for Mikey is:

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A patient diagnosed with cirrhosis develops ascites. Which medication will be ordered initially to improve symptoms? a. Cephalosporin b. Furosemide c. Lactulose d. Spironolactone
Sam is a 19 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of several weeks of fatigue and non-productive paroxysmal coughing. He initially had a sore throat, some rhinitis and low-grade fever. His likely diagnosis is: A. Bronchitis B. Atypical Pneumonia (Walking pneumonia) C. Allergic Rhinitis D. Community acquired bacterial pneumonia
Sam is a 19 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of several weeks of fatigue and non-productive paroxysmal coughing. He initially had a sore throat, some rhinitis and low-grade fever. Potential organisms that might have caused Sam’s condition include which of the following: A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Chlamydia pneumoniae C. Legionella pneumonia D. All the above E. None of the above
Martin is a 73 y/o male who has a 50 year/pack history of smoking and comes to the clinic for his annual physical. As you are leading him back to the exam room you note that he has dyspnea with minimal cough, a barrel chest, and appears to have lost weight since his last visit. Your physical exam confirms a 20 lb. weight loss, and a more noticeable pursed lip breathing. Your diagnosis is: A. Chronic Bronchitis B. Emphysema C. COPD
Mike is a 56 y/o male who lives in an abandoned building. With about 40 other street people. He comes to the clinic with a social worker who describes his symptoms as: a cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, fever and tachypnea. Your physical exam notes that he has some consolidation in the lower lobes with an audible friction rub.
A patient with a cough has a suspicious lung lesion, a mediastinal lymph mass, and several bone lesions. What test is indicated to determine histology and staging of this cancer?

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A young adult patient without a previous history of lung disease has an increased respiratory rate and reports a feeling of “not getting enough air.” The provider auscultates clear breath sounds and notes no signs of increased respiratory effort. Which diagnostic test will the provider perform initially?
Artie is a 21 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of paroxysmal coughing without an apparent cause. He states that this has been going on for about 15 days. He initially had a mild fever, and a runny nose. His most likely diagnosis is:
Joan is a 39 y/o female who presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of: 3-day history of fever (101 F degrees), chills, n
An older adult patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. The patient has no history of pulmonary hypertension or congestive heart failure. What will the provider order to help manage this patient’s dyspnea?
Murmur decreases in intensity when the patient changes from standing to squatting and increases in intensity with the Valsalva maneuver. Which will the provider suspect is causing this murmur
A patient has a cardiac murmur that peaks in mid-systole and is best heard along the left sternal border. The provider determines that the murmur decreases in intensity when the patient changes from standing to squatting and increases in intensity with the Valsalva maneuver. Which will the provider suspect is causing this murmur?
The murmur is best heard at the apex of the heart, radiates to the axilla, and is a loud blowing and high-pitched murmur.
A young adult patient is diagnosed with a mitral valve prolapse. During a routine 3- year health maintenance exam, the provider notes an apical systolic murmur and a mid- systolic click on auscultation. The patient denies chest pain, syncope, or palpitations. What action will the provider take?
Which test is diagnostic for diagnosing myocarditis? - Google Search Which test is diagnostic for diagnosing myocarditis?
Guy is a 65 y/o male who comes to the clinic with the following chief complaint: “I have been feeling feverish, have chills, and am tired all the time. My heart also makes a funny sound. In the physical exam the NP auscultates a heart murmur, and notices that the patient has subungual hemorrhages, petechiae on the palate, violet colored nodes on the fingers and feet, and nontender red nodes on the palms and soles of his feet. The most likely diagnosis for Guy is:

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The most common type of melanoma in African Americans and Asians is: A. Basal Cell carcinoma B. Actinic Keratosis C. Acral Lentiginous Melanoma D. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
An adult patient has been diagnosed with atopic dermatitis and seborrheic dermatitis with lesions on the forehead and along the scalp line. Which is correct when prescribing a corticosteroid medication to treat this condition?
A provider is considering an oral contraceptive medication to treat acne in an adolescent female. Which is an important consideration when prescribing this drug? A. A progesterone-only contraceptive is most beneficial for treating acne. B. Combined oral contraceptives are effective for non-inflammatory acne only. C. Oral contraceptives are effective because of their androgen enhancing effects. D. Yaz, Ortho Tri-Cyclen, and Estrostep, are approved for acne. treatment.
A patient comes to the clinic after being splashed with boiling water while cooking. The patient has partial thickness burns on both forearms, the neck, and the chin. What will the provider do? a. Clean and dress the burn wounds. b Order a CBC, glucose, and electrolytes. c. Perform a chest radiograph. Refer the patient to the emergency d. department (ED).
Complications associated with Carbuncles include which of the following;
Olga was making French fries for her kids and gets splashed with hot oil. At the clinic the NP notes that she has red colored skin with superficial blisters and pain where the oil splashed. The most likely diagnosis is: A First-degree burn B. Second degree burn C. Third degree burn D. Fourth degree burn
Patty comes to the clinic with these soft fatty cystic lesions on her neck, trunk and arms. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Nevi B. Acanthosis Nigricans C. Acrochordon D. Cherry Angioma

BEST REVIEW

A patient has actinic keratosis and the provider elects to use cryosurgery to remove the lesions. How will the provider administer this procedure? 61. A provider is prescribing a topical dermatologic medication for a patient who has open lesions on a hairy area of the body. Which vehicle type will the provider choose when prescribing this medication? Gel
What is the initial approach when obtaining a biopsy of a potential malignant melanoma lesion?
Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever, sore throat, pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes First line pharmacological treatment for Mikey would include: A. Amoxicillin B. Doxycycline C. Oral Penicillin D. Azithromycin
A patient diagnosed with allergic conjunctivitis and prescribed a topical antihistamine- vasoconstrictor medication reports worsening symptoms. What is the provider’s next step in managing this patient’s symptoms? A. Consider prescribing a topical mast cell a. stabilizer. B. Determine the duration of treatment with this medication. C. Prescribe a non-sedating oral antihistamine. D. Refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for further care.
An adult patient with a history of recurrent sinusitis and allergic rhinitis reports chronic tearing in one eye, ocular discharge, and eyelid crusting. The provider suspects nasolacrimal duct obstruction. Which initial treatment will the provider recommend? A. Antibiotic eye drops B. Nasolacrimal duct probing C. Systemic antibiotics D. Warm compresses
Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever, sore throat, pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes. The most likely organism causing Mikey’s infection is: A. Streptococcus B. Streptococcus pneumonia C. Streptococcus mutans D. Streptomyces

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Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever, sore throat, pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes. The most likely diagnosis for Mikey is: A. Flu B. Peritonsillar abscess C. Streptococcal Pharyngitis
An African-American patient who is being treated with a thiazide diuretic for chronic hypertension reports blurred vision and shortness of breath. The provider notes a blood pressure of 185/115. What is the recommended action for this patient? A. Add a beta blocker to the patient’s A. regimen. B. Admit to the hospital for evaluation and treatment. C. Increase the dose of the thiazide medication. D. Prescribe a calcium channel blocker.
A young adult patient is diagnosed with a mitral valve prolapse. During a routine 3-year health maintenance exam, the provider notes an apical systolic murmur and a mid- systolic click on auscultation. The patient denies chest pain, syncope, or palpitations. What action will the provider take? A. Admit the patient to the hospital for evaluation and treatment. B. Consult with the cardiologist to determine appropriate diagnostic tests. C. Continue to monitor the patient every 3 years. D. Reassure the patient that these findings are expected.
A previously healthy patient presents with sudden onset of dyspnea, fatigue, and orthopnea. A family history is negative. The provider suspects myocarditis. What is the most likely etiology for this patient? A. Autoimmune disorder B. Bacterial infection C. Protozoal infection D. Viral infection
A split S2 is best heard at the upper left sternum. A. True B. False
In coarctation of the aorta the BP of the arms is higher than the BP of the legs. A. True B. False

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In performing a follow-up exam on a patient, the NP discovers that the patient has a new murmur. The murmur is best heard at the apex of the heart, radiates to the axilla, and is a loud blowing and high-pitched murmur. This type of murmur is associated with which of the following conditions: A. Mitral Regurgitation B. Aortic Stenosis C. Mitral Stenosis Aortic D. Regurgitation
Angus is a 73 y/o male who comes to the clinic with the chief complaint of: chest pain, palpitations, exercise intolerance, intermittent periods of dizziness. Past medical records indicate that he has an enlarged heart. His diagnosis is: A. CHF. I think B. Left Ventricular Hypertrophy (LVH) C. Right sided heart failure D. None of the above
A patient is in clinic for evaluation of sudden onset of abdominal pain. The provider palpates a pulsatile, painful mass between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus. What is the initial action? A. Order a CBC, type and crossmatch, electrolytes, and renal function tests. B. Perform an ultrasound examination to evaluate the cause. C. Schedule the patient for an aortic angiogram. D. Transfer the patient to the emergency department for a surgical consult.
Which test is diagnostic for diagnosing myocarditis? A. Echocardiogram B. Electrocardiogram C. Endomyocardial biopsy D. Magnetic resonance imaging
Patients with hypertensive retinopathy will have all of the following except: A. Copper wire arterioles B. Silver wire arterioles C. Atriovenous nicking D. Optic disc with blurred margins
Guy is a 65 y/o male who comes to the clinic with the following chief complaint: “I have been feeling feverish, have chills, and am tired all the time. My heart also makes a funny sound. In the physical exam the NP auscultates a heart murmur, and notices that he patient has subungual hemorrhages, petechiae on the palate, violet colored nodes on the fingers and feet, and nontender red nodes on the palms and soles of his feet. In a patient with Guy’s diagnosis, on funduscopic exam one might see: A. Cotton wool spots B. Silver wire vessels C. Retinal hemorrhages

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A young adult patient without a previous history of lung disease has an increased respiratory rate and reports a feeling of “not getting enough air.” The provider auscultates clear breath sounds and notes no signs of increased respiratory effort. Which diagnostic test will the provider perform initially? A. Chest radiograph B. Complete blood count C. Computerized tomography D. Spirometry
Martin is a 73 y/o male who has a 50 year/pack history of smoking and comes to the clinic for his annual physical. As you are leading him back to the exam room you note that he has dyspnea with minimal cough, a barrel chest, and appears to have lost weight since his last visit. Your physical exam confirms a 20 lb. weight loss, and a more noticeable pursed lip breathing. Given Martin’s condition the first line treatment would be all the following except: A. Albuterol B. Salmeterol C. Levalbuterol D. Metaproterenol
Mike is a 22 y/o male who comes to your clinic with a 5-day history of cough without sputum production. He states that his cough is worse in the morning and he has some hoarseness, post-nasal drip and a low-grade fever. Mike has otherwise been healthy. Treatment for Mike’s condition would include all the following except: A. Rest B. Mucolytics C. Antibiotics D. Increased fluid intake.
A patient with a smoking history of 35 pack years reports having a chronic cough with recent symptoms of pink, frothy blood on a tissue. The chest radiograph shows a possible nodule in the right upper lobe. Which diagnostic test is indicated? A. Coagulation studies B. Computed tomography (CT) C. Fiberoptic bronchoscopy D. Needle biopsy
A patient reports anal pruritis and occasional bleeding with defecation. An examination of the perianal area reveals external hemorrhoids around the anal orifice as the patient is bearing down. The provider orders a colonoscopy to further evaluate this patient. What is the treatment for this patient’s symptoms? A. A high-fiber diet and increased fluid intake. B. Daily laxatives to prevent straining with stools C. Infiltration of a local anesthetic into the hemorrhoid D. Referral for possible surgical intervention

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A patient has recurrent constipation which improves with laxative use but returns when laxatives are discontinued. Which pharmacologic treatment will the provider recommend for long-term management? A. Bisacodyl B. Docusate sodium C. Methylcellulose D. Mineral oil
Jeremy is an 18 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of periumbilical pain. Over the past 24 hours he has had bouts of nausea and diarrhea and pain at McBurney’s point.Which of the following diagnostic studies would be appropriate for Jeremy’s diagnosis? A. CBC B. UA C. CT scan D. KUB E. All the Above F. A, C & D only
Danny is a 37 y/o male who returns to the clinic for review of lab results. When he came in a week ago he complained of a “sour” taste when he belched, and severe pain in his stomach. A serum fasting gastrin level was drawn and sent to the lab. The results were 300 pg/ml. Treatment for Danny would include which of the following: A. Debulking the liver B. Chemotherapy C. Liver transplant D. All the Above. E. A&B only
Jeremy is an 18 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of periumbilical pain. Over the past 24 hours he has had bouts of nausea and diarrhea and pain at McBurney’s point. The NP diagnoses him as having: A. Acute cholecystitis B. Acute Diverticulitis C. Acute Appendicitis D. Acute Pancreatitis
Jeremiah, a 47 y/o male presents to the clinic with episodic gastric pain he describes as gnawing and burning. He notes that the pain is temporarily relieved by food or antacids but return in full force after a couple of hours. He notes that his stools are “tarry” and he sometimes has coffee colored vomit. On this basis the NP provides a diagnosis of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Duodenal ulcer C. GERD D. Acute Diverticulitis

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obstruction. Which initial treatment will the provider recommend? A patient diagnosed with alopecia is noted to have scaling on the affected areas of the scalp. Which confirmatory test(s) will the provider order? A female patient is diagnosed with androgenetic NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE alopecia. Which medication will the primary This page cannot be seen from the preview Don't miss anything! This page cannot be seen from the preview Don't miss anything! Bacteremic spread from remote infections Inoculation from local trauma or bug bites *c Local spread from the ethmoid .sinus d. Paranasal sinus inoculation *a Allergic . Bacteri b. al Chemi c NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED

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ANSWER NEW UPDATE

Which is the most common cause of orbital cellulitis in all age groups? A patient reports bilateral burning and itching eyes for several days. The provider notes a boggy appearance to the conjunctivae, along with clear, watery discharge. The patient’s eyelids are thickened and discolored. There are no other symptoms. Which type of conjunctivitis is most likely? Bacteremic spread from remote infections Inoculation from local trauma or bug bites *c Local spread from the ethmoid .sinus d. Paranasal sinus inoculation *a Allergic . Bacteri b. al Chemi c NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE Which is the most common cause of orbital cellulitis in all age groups? A patient reports bilateral burning and itching eyes for several days. The provider notes a boggy appearance to the conjunctivae, along with clear, watery discharge. The patient’s eyelids are thickened and discolored. There are no other symptoms. Which type of conjunctivitis is most likely? This page cannot be seen from the preview Don't miss anything! *True False *c UVB eye protection is especially .important.

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GRADED A+

CORRECT/VERIFIED

ANSWER NEW UPDATE

NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM

QUESTIONS

AND ANSWERS BEST

GRADED A+

CORRECT/VERIFIED

ANSWER NEW

UPDATE

Aaron an 18 y/o male comes to the clinic with the following symptoms: nasal stuffiness, sneezing, scratchy irritated throat and hoarseness. He also complains of a low-grade fever and a cough that he has had for the past 4 days. Prevention of Aaron’s condition would include which of the following: Bryce is a 17 y/o male who comes to the clinic with chief complaint of ear sudden onset of pain, popping

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NRNP 6665 Exam Review: Multiple Choice Questions and Answers, Quizzes of Nursing

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