NRNP 6665 Exam Review: Multiple Choice Questions and Answers, Quizzes of Nursing

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1. What is the purpose of clinical research trials in the spectrum of translational research? Examination of safety and effectiveness of various interventions
2. What is the purpose of Level II research? To describe relationships among characteristics or variables
3. The care provided by APRNs is not limited by setting but by patient care needs. A. True B. False
4. APRN Consensus Model/LACE include all except: A. Licensure B. Accreditation C. Certification D. It’s the one that stars with an E (Education)
5. All of the following are core quality competencies expected of APRNs except: A. Uses best evidence to improve care B. Assumes advanced leadership role C. Applies skills in peer review to promote culture of excellence D. Evaluates organizational structures to improved care – Not sure??
6. What was an important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about primary care preferences of patients? A. Associations with area hospitals B. Costs of ambulatory care C. Ease of access to care. D. The ratio of providers to patients
7. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy? A. Mandates for communication among primary caregivers and hospitalists B. Penalties for failure to perform medication reconciliations at time of discharge C. Reduction of payments for patients readmitted within 30 days after discharge D. Requirements for written discharge instructions for patients and d. caregivers
8. Rules proposed by the various State Boards of Nursing must be approved by the state Legislatures. A. True B. False
9. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?

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10. What was an important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about primary care preferences of patients?
11. The Consensus Model for APRN regulation consists of which of the following roles? A. CNM B. CRNA C. APN D. CNS E All the Above A, B & C F. only
12. In reviewing the Total Percentage of Body surface area for adult burn patients each, leg, arm and head are noted evaluated at 9%. A. True B. False
13. What is the initial approach when obtaining a biopsy of a potential malignant melanoma lesion? A. Excisional biopsy B. Punch biopsy C. Shave biopsy D. Wide excision
14. Which of the following are independent practice competencies for APRNs? A. Prescribes medications B. Functions as an independent practitioner C. Employs screening and diagnostic strategies to arrive at diagnoses D. Manages health/illness strategies of patients and families over time. E. All the Above F. A, C & D only
15. A female patient is diagnosed with androgenetic alopecia. Which medication will the primary health care provider prescribe? a. Anthralin b. Cyclosporine c. Finasteride d Minoxidil
16. Agnes is a 72 y/o grandmother who comes to the clinic with an acute onset of severe eye pain. She has been having headaches, nausea and vomiting, and seeing halos around lights. Eye exam reveals cupping of optic nerve the pupil is oval and the cornea is cloudy. Her most likely diagnosis is:
17. Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever, sore throat, pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes. The most likely diagnosis for Mikey is:

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18. A 50-year-old, previously healthy patient has developed gastritis. What is the most likely cause of this condition? a. H. pylori infection b. NSAID use c. Parasite infestation d. Viral gastroenteritis
19. Which diagnostic test will the provider safely order for a 30-year-old woman reporting right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting? a. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) with contrast b. Abdominal ultrasound c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen
20. A patient, who first developed acute diarrhea 2 weeks ago, presents to clinic reporting profuse watery, bloody diarrheal stools 6 to 8 times daily. The provider notes a toxic appearance with moderate dehydration. Which test is indicated to diagnose this problem? a. Qualitative and quantitative fecal fat b. Stool collection for 24-hour stool pH c. Stool sample for C. difficile toxin d. Wright stain of stool for white blood cells
21. A patient with a positive HbeAg indicates the patient has chronic Hepatitis B. A. True B. False
22. Classic pain of acute pancreatitis is severe midgastric pain that refers to the midback. A. True I think B. False
23. A patient with hemoptysis and no other symptoms has a normal chest radiograph (CXR), computed tomography (CT), and fiberoptic bronchoscopy studies. What is the next action in managing this patient?
24. Jeremy is an 18 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of periumbilical pain. Over the past 24 hours he has had bouts of nausea and diarrhea and pain at McBurney’s point. Which of the following assessments would aide in confirming Jeremy’s diagnosis: A. Psoas Sign B. Obturator Sign C. Murphy’s Sign D. All the Above E. A & B only

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25. A patient diagnosed with cirrhosis develops ascites. Which medication will be ordered initially to improve symptoms? a. Cephalosporin b. Furosemide c. Lactulose d. Spironolactone
26. Sam is a 19 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of several weeks of fatigue and non-productive paroxysmal coughing. He initially had a sore throat, some rhinitis and low-grade fever. His likely diagnosis is: A. Bronchitis B. Atypical Pneumonia (Walking pneumonia) C. Allergic Rhinitis D. Community acquired bacterial pneumonia
27. Sam is a 19 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of several weeks of fatigue and non-productive paroxysmal coughing. He initially had a sore throat, some rhinitis and low-grade fever. Potential organisms that might have caused Sam’s condition include which of the following: A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Chlamydia pneumoniae C. Legionella pneumonia D. All the above E. None of the above
28. Martin is a 73 y/o male who has a 50 year/pack history of smoking and comes to the clinic for his annual physical. As you are leading him back to the exam room you note that he has dyspnea with minimal cough, a barrel chest, and appears to have lost weight since his last visit. Your physical exam confirms a 20 lb. weight loss, and a more noticeable pursed lip breathing. Your diagnosis is: A. Chronic Bronchitis B. Emphysema C. COPD
29. Mike is a 56 y/o male who lives in an abandoned building. With about 40 other street people. He comes to the clinic with a social worker who describes his symptoms as: a cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, fever and tachypnea. Your physical exam notes that he has some consolidation in the lower lobes with an audible friction rub.
30. A patient with a cough has a suspicious lung lesion, a mediastinal lymph mass, and several bone lesions. What test is indicated to determine histology and staging of this cancer?

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31. A young adult patient without a previous history of lung disease has an increased respiratory rate and reports a feeling of “not getting enough air.” The provider auscultates clear breath sounds and notes no signs of increased respiratory effort. Which diagnostic test will the provider perform initially?
32. Artie is a 21 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of paroxysmal coughing without an apparent cause. He states that this has been going on for about 15 days. He initially had a mild fever, and a runny nose. His most likely diagnosis is:
33. Joan is a 39 y/o female who presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of: 3-day history of fever (101 F degrees), chills, n
34. An older adult patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. The patient has no history of pulmonary hypertension or congestive heart failure. What will the provider order to help manage this patient’s dyspnea?
35. Murmur decreases in intensity when the patient changes from standing to squatting and increases in intensity with the Valsalva maneuver. Which will the provider suspect is causing this murmur
36. A patient has a cardiac murmur that peaks in mid-systole and is best heard along the left sternal border. The provider determines that the murmur decreases in intensity when the patient changes from standing to squatting and increases in intensity with the Valsalva maneuver. Which will the provider suspect is causing this murmur?
37. The murmur is best heard at the apex of the heart, radiates to the axilla, and is a loud blowing and high-pitched murmur.
38. A young adult patient is diagnosed with a mitral valve prolapse. During a routine 3- year health maintenance exam, the provider notes an apical systolic murmur and a mid- systolic click on auscultation. The patient denies chest pain, syncope, or palpitations. What action will the provider take?
39. Which test is diagnostic for diagnosing myocarditis? - Google Search Which test is diagnostic for diagnosing myocarditis?
40. Guy is a 65 y/o male who comes to the clinic with the following chief complaint: “I have been feeling feverish, have chills, and am tired all the time. My heart also makes a funny sound. In the physical exam the NP auscultates a heart murmur, and notices that the patient has subungual hemorrhages, petechiae on the palate, violet colored nodes on the fingers and feet, and nontender red nodes on the palms and soles of his feet. The most likely diagnosis for Guy is:

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41. A patient is in clinic for evaluation of sudden onset of abdominal pain. The provider palpates a pulsatile, painful mass between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus. What is the initial action?
42. in performing a follow-up exam on a patient the NP discovers that the patient has a new murmur. The murmur is best heard at the apex of the heart, radiates to the axilla, and is a loud blowing and high-pitched murmur. This describes a:
43. A patient who is on renal dialysis is diagnosed with infective endocarditis. What causative organisms are more likely in this patient?
44. Guy is a 65 y/o male who comes to the clinic with the following chief complaint: “I have been feeling feverish, have chills, and am tired all the time. My heart also makes a funny sound. In the physical exam the NP auscultates a heart murmur, and notices that he patient has subungual hemorrhages, petechiae on the palate, violet colored nodes on the fingers and feet, and nontender red nodes on the palms and soles of his feet
45. A patient has native valve endocarditis (NVE). While blood cultures are pending, which antibiotics will be ordered as empirical treatment?
46. Aaron an 18 y/o male comes to the clinic with the following symptoms: nasal stuffiness, sneezing, scratchy irritated throat and hoarseness. He also complains of a low-grade fever and a cough that he has had for the past 4 days. The NP diagnoses Aaron’s condition as:
47. comes to the clinic with the following symptoms: nasal stuffiness, sneezing, scratchy irritated throat and hoarseness. He also complains of a low-grade fever and a cough that he has had for the past 4 days.
48. A patient diagnosed with allergic conjunctivitis and prescribed a topical antihistamine- vasoconstrictor medication reports worsening symptoms. What is the provider’s next step in managing this patient’s symptoms?
49. A Schirmer test is abnormal. What is the suspected cause of this patient’s symptoms based on this test finding?
50. Bryce is a 17 y/o male who comes to the clinic with chief complaint of ear sudden onset of pain, popping noises, and muffled hearing. During the ear exam the NP notices that the TM has ruptured
51. A flat nonpalpable lesion less than 1 cm in diameter identifies which type of primary skin lesion:
52. Carbuncles are typically treated with systemic antibiotics. A. True B. False

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53. The most common type of melanoma in African Americans and Asians is: A. Basal Cell carcinoma B. Actinic Keratosis C. Acral Lentiginous Melanoma D. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
54. An adult patient has been diagnosed with atopic dermatitis and seborrheic dermatitis with lesions on the forehead and along the scalp line. Which is correct when prescribing a corticosteroid medication to treat this condition?
55. A provider is considering an oral contraceptive medication to treat acne in an adolescent female. Which is an important consideration when prescribing this drug? A. A progesterone-only contraceptive is most beneficial for treating acne. B. Combined oral contraceptives are effective for non-inflammatory acne only. C. Oral contraceptives are effective because of their androgen enhancing effects. D. Yaz, Ortho Tri-Cyclen, and Estrostep, are approved for acne. treatment.
56. A patient comes to the clinic after being splashed with boiling water while cooking. The patient has partial thickness burns on both forearms, the neck, and the chin. What will the provider do? a. Clean and dress the burn wounds. b Order a CBC, glucose, and electrolytes. c. Perform a chest radiograph. Refer the patient to the emergency d. department (ED).
57. Complications associated with Carbuncles include which of the following;
58. Olga was making French fries for her kids and gets splashed with hot oil. At the clinic the NP notes that she has red colored skin with superficial blisters and pain where the oil splashed. The most likely diagnosis is: A First-degree burn B. Second degree burn C. Third degree burn D. Fourth degree burn
59. Patty comes to the clinic with these soft fatty cystic lesions on her neck, trunk and arms. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Nevi B. Acanthosis Nigricans C. Acrochordon D. Cherry Angioma

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60. A patient has actinic keratosis and the provider elects to use cryosurgery to remove the lesions. How will the provider administer this procedure? 61. A provider is prescribing a topical dermatologic medication for a patient who has open lesions on a hairy area of the body. Which vehicle type will the provider choose when prescribing this medication? Gel
61. What is the initial approach when obtaining a biopsy of a potential malignant melanoma lesion?
62. Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever, sore throat, pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes First line pharmacological treatment for Mikey would include: A. Amoxicillin B. Doxycycline C. Oral Penicillin D. Azithromycin
63. A patient diagnosed with allergic conjunctivitis and prescribed a topical antihistamine- vasoconstrictor medication reports worsening symptoms. What is the provider’s next step in managing this patient’s symptoms? A. Consider prescribing a topical mast cell a. stabilizer. B. Determine the duration of treatment with this medication. C. Prescribe a non-sedating oral antihistamine. D. Refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for further care.
64. An adult patient with a history of recurrent sinusitis and allergic rhinitis reports chronic tearing in one eye, ocular discharge, and eyelid crusting. The provider suspects nasolacrimal duct obstruction. Which initial treatment will the provider recommend? A. Antibiotic eye drops B. Nasolacrimal duct probing C. Systemic antibiotics D. Warm compresses
65. Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever, sore throat, pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes. The most likely organism causing Mikey’s infection is: A. Streptococcus B. Streptococcus pneumonia C. Streptococcus mutans D. Streptomyces

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67. Audrey is a 16 y/o female who comes to the clinic because her teacher says that she is having a hard time hearing in class. The NP examines her ears and notes that she has otitis media. If the NP performed a Weber test on Audrey she would discover that there would be: A. Lateralization to the good ear B. Lateralization to the bad ear C. Lateralization would be equal to either ear.
68. A patient experiencing chronically dry eyes reports having a foreign body sensation, burning, and itching. A Schirmer test is abnormal. What is the suspected cause of this patient’s symptoms based on this test finding? A. Aqueous deficiency B. Corneal abrasion C. Evaporative disorder D. Poor eyelid closure
69. Which is the most common cause of orbital cellulitis in all age groups? A. Bacteremic spread from remote infections B. Inoculation from local trauma or bug bites C. Local spread from the ethmoid sinus D. Paranasal sinus inoculation
70. Aaron an 18 y/o male comes to the clinic with the following symptoms: nasal stuffiness, sneezing, scratchy irritated throat and hoarseness. He also complains of a low-grade fever and a cough that he has had for the past 4 days. Prevention of Aaron’s condition would include which of the following: A. Good hand washing B. Adequate rest C. Zinc Lozenges D. All the above. E. A&B only
71. Bryce is a 17 y/o male who comes to the clinic with chief complaint of ear sudden onset of pain, popping noises, and muffled hearing. During the ear exam the NP notices that the TM has ruptured. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Acute otitis media B. Bullous Myringitis C. Otitis externa D. Swimmer’s ear
72. Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa are pathognomonic for mumps A. True B. B. False

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77. Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever, sore throat, pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes. The most likely diagnosis for Mikey is: A. Flu B. Peritonsillar abscess C. Streptococcal Pharyngitis
78. An African-American patient who is being treated with a thiazide diuretic for chronic hypertension reports blurred vision and shortness of breath. The provider notes a blood pressure of 185/115. What is the recommended action for this patient? A. Add a beta blocker to the patient’s A. regimen. B. Admit to the hospital for evaluation and treatment. C. Increase the dose of the thiazide medication. D. Prescribe a calcium channel blocker.
79. A young adult patient is diagnosed with a mitral valve prolapse. During a routine 3-year health maintenance exam, the provider notes an apical systolic murmur and a mid- systolic click on auscultation. The patient denies chest pain, syncope, or palpitations. What action will the provider take? A. Admit the patient to the hospital for evaluation and treatment. B. Consult with the cardiologist to determine appropriate diagnostic tests. C. Continue to monitor the patient every 3 years. D. Reassure the patient that these findings are expected.
80. A previously healthy patient presents with sudden onset of dyspnea, fatigue, and orthopnea. A family history is negative. The provider suspects myocarditis. What is the most likely etiology for this patient? A. Autoimmune disorder B. Bacterial infection C. Protozoal infection D. Viral infection
81. A split S2 is best heard at the upper left sternum. A. True B. False
82. In coarctation of the aorta the BP of the arms is higher than the BP of the legs. A. True B. False

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83. In performing a follow-up exam on a patient, the NP discovers that the patient has a new murmur. The murmur is best heard at the apex of the heart, radiates to the axilla, and is a loud blowing and high-pitched murmur. This type of murmur is associated with which of the following conditions: A. Mitral Regurgitation B. Aortic Stenosis C. Mitral Stenosis Aortic D. Regurgitation
84. Angus is a 73 y/o male who comes to the clinic with the chief complaint of: chest pain, palpitations, exercise intolerance, intermittent periods of dizziness. Past medical records indicate that he has an enlarged heart. His diagnosis is: A. CHF. I think B. Left Ventricular Hypertrophy (LVH) C. Right sided heart failure D. None of the above
85. A patient is in clinic for evaluation of sudden onset of abdominal pain. The provider palpates a pulsatile, painful mass between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus. What is the initial action? A. Order a CBC, type and crossmatch, electrolytes, and renal function tests. B. Perform an ultrasound examination to evaluate the cause. C. Schedule the patient for an aortic angiogram. D. Transfer the patient to the emergency department for a surgical consult.
86. Which test is diagnostic for diagnosing myocarditis? A. Echocardiogram B. Electrocardiogram C. Endomyocardial biopsy D. Magnetic resonance imaging
87. Patients with hypertensive retinopathy will have all of the following except: A. Copper wire arterioles B. Silver wire arterioles C. Atriovenous nicking D. Optic disc with blurred margins
88. Guy is a 65 y/o male who comes to the clinic with the following chief complaint: “I have been feeling feverish, have chills, and am tired all the time. My heart also makes a funny sound. In the physical exam the NP auscultates a heart murmur, and notices that he patient has subungual hemorrhages, petechiae on the palate, violet colored nodes on the fingers and feet, and nontender red nodes on the palms and soles of his feet. In a patient with Guy’s diagnosis, on funduscopic exam one might see: A. Cotton wool spots B. Silver wire vessels C. Retinal hemorrhages

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D. A & B only

89. Ashley is a 47 y/o female who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of sudden onset of palpitations and a feeling of weakness and dizziness. Additionally she notes that she has on exertion. On the physical exam the NP notes that he HR is 120 and her BP drops to 98/60. Her EKG shows discrete p waves and irregularly irregular rhythm. Dyspnea bpm no If Ashley were to start bleeding, she would go to the ER and they would initiate which intervention below to reverse the effects of her warfarin: A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin D
90. Mike is a 56 y/o male who lives in an abandoned building. With about 40 other street people. He comes to the clinic with a social worker who describes his symptoms as: a cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, fever and tachypnea. Your physical exam notes that he has some consolidation in the lower lobes with an audible friction rub. Given Mike’s diagnosis the most likely causative agent is: A. Strep pneumonia B. Pneumococcal pneumonia C. Mycoplasma pneumonia D. Moraxella catarrhalis
91. Artie is a 21 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of paroxysmal coughing without an apparent cause. He states that this has been going on for about 15 days. He initially had a mild fever, and a runny nose. First line treatment for Artie would include macrolides. A. True B. False
92. Mike is a 22 y/o male who comes to your clinic with a 5-day history of cough without sputum production. He states that his cough is worse in the morning and he has some hoarseness, post-nasal drip and a low-grade fever. Mike has otherwise been healthy A. Pneumonia B. Sinusitis C. COPD D. All the Above E. A & B only
93. A nonsmoking adult with a history of cardiovascular disease reports having a chronic cough without fever or upper airway symptoms. A chest radiograph is normal. What will the provider consider initially as the cause of this patient’s cough? A. ACE inhibitor medication use B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease D. Psychogenic cough

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94. A young adult patient without a previous history of lung disease has an increased respiratory rate and reports a feeling of “not getting enough air.” The provider auscultates clear breath sounds and notes no signs of increased respiratory effort. Which diagnostic test will the provider perform initially? A. Chest radiograph B. Complete blood count C. Computerized tomography D. Spirometry
95. Martin is a 73 y/o male who has a 50 year/pack history of smoking and comes to the clinic for his annual physical. As you are leading him back to the exam room you note that he has dyspnea with minimal cough, a barrel chest, and appears to have lost weight since his last visit. Your physical exam confirms a 20 lb. weight loss, and a more noticeable pursed lip breathing. Given Martin’s condition the first line treatment would be all the following except: A. Albuterol B. Salmeterol C. Levalbuterol D. Metaproterenol
96. Mike is a 22 y/o male who comes to your clinic with a 5-day history of cough without sputum production. He states that his cough is worse in the morning and he has some hoarseness, post-nasal drip and a low-grade fever. Mike has otherwise been healthy. Treatment for Mike’s condition would include all the following except: A. Rest B. Mucolytics C. Antibiotics D. Increased fluid intake.
97. A patient with a smoking history of 35 pack years reports having a chronic cough with recent symptoms of pink, frothy blood on a tissue. The chest radiograph shows a possible nodule in the right upper lobe. Which diagnostic test is indicated? A. Coagulation studies B. Computed tomography (CT) C. Fiberoptic bronchoscopy D. Needle biopsy
98. A patient reports anal pruritis and occasional bleeding with defecation. An examination of the perianal area reveals external hemorrhoids around the anal orifice as the patient is bearing down. The provider orders a colonoscopy to further evaluate this patient. What is the treatment for this patient’s symptoms? A. A high-fiber diet and increased fluid intake. B. Daily laxatives to prevent straining with stools C. Infiltration of a local anesthetic into the hemorrhoid D. Referral for possible surgical intervention

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98. A patient has recurrent constipation which improves with laxative use but returns when laxatives are discontinued. Which pharmacologic treatment will the provider recommend for long-term management? A. Bisacodyl B. Docusate sodium C. Methylcellulose D. Mineral oil
99. Jeremy is an 18 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of periumbilical pain. Over the past 24 hours he has had bouts of nausea and diarrhea and pain at McBurney’s point.Which of the following diagnostic studies would be appropriate for Jeremy’s diagnosis? A. CBC B. UA C. CT scan D. KUB E. All the Above F. A, C & D only
100. Danny is a 37 y/o male who returns to the clinic for review of lab results. When he came in a week ago he complained of a “sour” taste when he belched, and severe pain in his stomach. A serum fasting gastrin level was drawn and sent to the lab. The results were 300 pg/ml. Treatment for Danny would include which of the following: A. Debulking the liver B. Chemotherapy C. Liver transplant D. All the Above. E. A&B only
101. Jeremy is an 18 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of periumbilical pain. Over the past 24 hours he has had bouts of nausea and diarrhea and pain at McBurney’s point. The NP diagnoses him as having: A. Acute cholecystitis B. Acute Diverticulitis C. Acute Appendicitis D. Acute Pancreatitis
102. Jeremiah, a 47 y/o male presents to the clinic with episodic gastric pain he describes as gnawing and burning. He notes that the pain is temporarily relieved by food or antacids but return in full force after a couple of hours. He notes that his stools are “tarry” and he sometimes has coffee colored vomit. On this basis the NP provides a diagnosis of: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Duodenal ulcer C. GERD D. Acute Diverticulitis

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103. Amylase and Lipase are sensitive tests used to assess for pancreatitis. A. True B. False
104. A patient with a history of diverticular disease asks what can be done to minimize acute symptoms. What will the provider recommend to this patient? A. Avoiding saturated fats and red meat B. Consuming a diet high in fiber. C. Taking an anticholinergic c. medication D. Using bran to replace high-fiber foods
105. Jeremiah, a 47 y/o male presents to the clinic with episodic gastric pain he describes as gnawing and burning. He notes that the pain is temporarily relieved by food or antacids but return in full force after a couple of hours. He notes that his stools are “tarry” and he sometimes has coffee colored vomit. Jeremiah is determined to have H. pylori positive ulcers which treatment would be indicated? A. Single Therapy of Ranitidine B. Single Therapy of Omeprazole C. Triple therapy of Clarithromycin amoxicillin, PPI D. None of the above
106. A patient diagnosed with chronic constipation uses polyethylene glycol and reports increased abdominal discomfort with nausea and vomiting. What is the initial action by the provider? A. Increase the dose of polyethylene glycol B. Obtain radiographic abdominal studies C. Perform a stool culture and occult blood D. Refer to a specialist for d. colonoscopy Antibiotic eye drops Nasolacrimal duct probing Systemic antibiotics *d Warm compresses *a Examination of scalp scrapings with potassium . hydroxide (KOH) Grasping and pulling on a few dozen hairs Serum iron studies and a complete blood count Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test An adult patient with a history of recurrent sinusitis and allergic rhinitis reports chronic tearing in one eye, ocular discharge, and eyelid crusting. The provider suspects nasolacrimal duct

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obstruction. Which initial treatment will the provider recommend? A patient diagnosed with alopecia is noted to have scaling on the affected areas of the scalp. Which confirmatory test(s) will the provider order? A female patient is diagnosed with androgenetic NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE alopecia. Which medication will the primary This page cannot be seen from the preview Don't miss anything! This page cannot be seen from the preview Don't miss anything! Bacteremic spread from remote infections Inoculation from local trauma or bug bites *c Local spread from the ethmoid .sinus d. Paranasal sinus inoculation *a Allergic . Bacteri b. al Chemi c NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED

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Which is the most common cause of orbital cellulitis in all age groups? A patient reports bilateral burning and itching eyes for several days. The provider notes a boggy appearance to the conjunctivae, along with clear, watery discharge. The patient’s eyelids are thickened and discolored. There are no other symptoms. Which type of conjunctivitis is most likely? Bacteremic spread from remote infections Inoculation from local trauma or bug bites *c Local spread from the ethmoid .sinus d. Paranasal sinus inoculation *a Allergic . Bacteri b. al Chemi c NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE Which is the most common cause of orbital cellulitis in all age groups? A patient reports bilateral burning and itching eyes for several days. The provider notes a boggy appearance to the conjunctivae, along with clear, watery discharge. The patient’s eyelids are thickened and discolored. There are no other symptoms. Which type of conjunctivitis is most likely? This page cannot be seen from the preview Don't miss anything! *True False *c UVB eye protection is especially .important.

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Visine may be used for symptomatic d. relief. NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE d. Viral A retinal detachment would be identified by a shower of floaters with the addition of sudden flashes of light. A patient has an elevated, yellowish-white lesion adjacent to the cornea at the 3 o’clock position of the right eye. The provider notes pinkish inflammation with dilated blood vessels surrounding the lesion. What information will the provider provide the patient about this lesion? Artificial tear drops are contraindicated. Spontaneous bleeding is likely. A primary care provider may suspect cataract formation in a patient with which finding? *a Asymmetric red reflex . Corneal b. opacification c. Excessive tearing Injection of d. conjunctiva Good hand washing Adequate rest Zinc Lozenges *D All the above . E. A & B only NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST

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NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM

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Aaron an 18 y/o male comes to the clinic with the following symptoms: nasal stuffiness, sneezing, scratchy irritated throat and hoarseness. He also complains of a low-grade fever and a cough that he has had for the past 4 days. Prevention of Aaron’s condition would include which of the following: Bryce is a 17 y/o male who comes to the clinic with chief complaint of ear sudden onset of pain, popping

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This page cannot be seen from the preview Don't miss anything!

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This page cannot be seen from the preview Don't miss anything! Administration of antibiotic eye

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a. drops *b Application of topical fluorescein dye . Instillation of cycloplegic eye c. drops Irrigation of the eye with normal d. saline NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE A patient who works in a furniture manufacturing shop reports a sudden onset of severe eye pain while sanding a piece of wood and now has copious tearing, redness, and light sensitivity in the affected eye. On examination, the conjunctiva appears injected, but no foreign body is visualized. What is the practitioner’s next step? Angie is a new NP who just finished her FNP program. She is having a difficult time finding an FNP position in the rural area where she lives. So, since she was an ER nurse prior to her graduate program she decides to go back to the ER as Administration of antibiotic eye a. drops *b Application of topical fluorescein dye . Instillation of cycloplegic eye c. drops Irrigation of the eye with normal d. saline NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED

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ANSWER NEW UPDATE

NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM

QUESTIONS

AND ANSWERS BEST

GRADED A+

CORRECT/VERIFIED

ANSWER NEW

UPDATE

A patient who works in a furniture manufacturing shop reports a sudden onset of severe eye pain while sanding a piece of wood and now has copious tearing, redness, and light sensitivity in the affected eye. On examination, the conjunctiva appears injected, but no foreign body is visualized. What is the practitioner’s next step? Angie is a new NP who just finished her FNP program. She is having a difficult time finding an FNP position in the rural area where she lives. So, since she was an ER nurse prior to her graduate program she decides to go back to the ER as This page cannot be seen from the preview Don't miss anything! B. It assesses numeracy skills. It enhances patient–provider communication. *c It evaluates medical word recognition. . d. It measures technology NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE an APRN. Does she meet the competency requirements for such a position? *A Ye . s What is the main reason for using the REALM-SF

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instrument to evaluate health literacy? A small, rural hospital is part of an Accountable Care Organization (ACO) and is designated as a Level 1 ACO. What is part of this designation? NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE NRNP 6531 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST GRADED A+ CORRECT/VERIFIED ANSWER NEW UPDATE *a Bonuses based on achievement of benchmarks . Care coordination for chronic diseases Standards for minimum cash reserves Strict requirements for financial reporting Question 4 The Consensus Model identifies 3 core courses that all ANPs must take. All the following are Advanced core courses except: *A Public Health . B. Physiology C. Pharma c ology Physica l D. Assessment The care provided by APRNs is not limited by setting

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This page cannot be seen from the preview Don't miss anything!