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NSCA Certified Strength & Conditioning
Specialist CSCS Questions from Actual Exam
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Instructing all athletes on proper spotting and exercise technique will likely decrease which of the following? a. risk of liability exposure b. assumption of risk c. rick of product liability Correct Answer ANSWER: a. risk of liability exposure EXPLANATION: Decreasing risk of liability exposure is a form of risk management, in which strategies are employed to decrease the risk of injury from any athletic preparation by the strength and conditioning department. For hypertrophy training, which type of program is typically advised for maximum gains? a. split routines b. full body routines c. upper body routines Correct Answer ANSWER: a. split routines EXPLANATION: When considering training frequency for strength gains, as athletes adapt to their training stimulus, it is often recommended that they resistance-train four or more times per week. Because of this, adopting a split routine seems to work best to maximize results. A split routine system involves
breaking up the body parts to be trained on separate days. This allows for a higher volume of training with moderate intensity as opposing muscle groups are rested on a rotating basis. Training nearly every day seems to violate the recommended guidelines for recovery, but grouping exercises that train portion of the body or certain muscle areas gives the trained athlete an opportunity to adequately recover between similar training sessions. As an example, lower body routines can be marked for Monday and Thursday, while upper body routines are marked for Tuesday and Friday. Setting it up this way gives good spacing between each training day for similar body areas. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 17, pg 447 What is the most important factor to be considered when evaluating the quality of a test? a. specificity b. validity c. reliability Correct Answer ANSWER: b. validity EXPLANATION: To be valid, tests must measure what they are supposed to measure; thus, validity is the most important characteristic of a well-designed test. There are several types of validity: construct validity, face validity, content validity, and criterion-referenced validity. Construct validity is the ability of a test to represent the underlying theory. Face validity is the appearance to the athlete and others that the test is measuring what it is intended to measure. Content validity is the assessment by experts that the test thoroughly covers all relevant subtopics or component abilities in appropriate proportions. Criterion-referenced validity is the extent to which test scores are associated with some other measure of the same ability. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 250 - 251 Which of the following would be considered a muscle buffer?
During exercises where the athlete is supine on a bench, what is an example of one of the five points of contact? a. head is raised above the bench or pad b. buttocks are placed evenly on the bench or pad c. right and left feet are placed on a foot rest Correct Answer ANSWER: b. buttocks are placed evenly on the bench or pad EXPLANATION: There are five points of contact for exercises when the athlete is seated or supine on a bench:
- head is placed firmly on the bench or pad
- shoulders and upper back are placed firmly and evenly on the bench or pad
- buttocks are placed evenly on the bench or pad
- right foot is flat on the floor
- left foot is flat on the floor Establishing and maintaining these five points of contact promotes maximal stability and spinal support. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 353 What is considered the ideal temperature for a strength and conditioning facility? a. 65-72 degrees Fahrenheit b. 62-65 degrees Fahrenheit c. 72-78 degrees Fahrenheit Correct Answer ANSWER: C. 72-78 degrees Fahrenheit EXPLANATION: A strength and conditioning facility needs to maintain a comfortable training temperature. The heating, ventilation, and air conditioning system should ideally have the capability to heat and cool individual sections of the facility. Most sources indicate that anywhere between 68 and 78 degrees
Fahrenheit is a good temperature range, with many suggesting that operation is optimal at 72-78 degrees. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 627 An endurance athlete has injured her shoulder. Maintaining her aerobic capabilities on a stationary bike would be considered: a. a subluxation b. a rehabilitation c. an indication Correct Answer ANSWER: c. an indication EXPLANATION: An indication is a required or recommended form of treatment. If an athlete injures something on the upper body, the athletic trainer should request that the athlete perform lower body strength, speed, agility, and power exercises during the injury time period, so that the upper body injury has a chance to heal. Therefore, lower body exercise is indicated. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 22, pg 607 Which of the following is a measurement about which data tends to cluster? a. measures of statistical analysis b. measures of central tendency c. measures of standard deviation Correct Answer ANSWER: b. measures of central tendency EXPLANATION: There are three types of central tendencies: mean, median and mode. The most commonly used measure of central tendency is the mean, which is the sum of the scores divided by the number of scores (this is also called the average). The median, the middlemost score when a set of scores is
There are three different body types:
- ectomorph
- endomorph
- mesomorph Ectomorphs tend to be tall and skinny individuals, which is not helpful for a football player. Endomorphs are those who bodies tend to retain more body fat, which is better than the ectomorph type but still undesirable. Mesomorphs are those with athletic body types -- muscular and broad- shouldered. This is the perfect body type for a football player. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 7, pg 139 By the end of the first pull of the power clean, where should the bar be located? a. middle of shin b. mid-thigh c. at the knees Correct Answer ANSWER: c. at the knees EXPLANATION: The starting position of the power clean is when the bar should be located mid-shin, because the bar starts on the ground. At the end of the first pull, the bar should reach to the knees. After the first pull comes the transition, and this is when the bar reaches mid-thigh, just before the second pull begins. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 404 - 405 A strength and conditioning department has a mandate to educate all athletes on the importance of good nutrition for affecting health and performance. Which of the following does this statement describe? a. program objectives b. program policies
c. program goals Correct Answer ANSWER: a. program objectives EXPLANATION: Program objectives are the specific means of achieving the goals of a program. They should encompass all areas of the program to ensure that the goals are attained. Objectives should help a strength and conditioning professional to handle the job. For example:
- Design strength, flexibility, aerobic, plyometric, and other training programs that reduce the likelihood of injury.
- Develop training programs to account for biomechanical and physiological differences between individual athletes
- Recognize acute and chronic physiological responses and adaptations to training and their implications for the design of sport-specific training programs.
- Educate athletes on the importance of good nutrition as well as sleep and their role in health and performance.
- Educate athletes about the effects of performance-enhancing substances and their abuse, relevant school policy and legislation. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 24, pg 642 - 643 An athlete is performing the bench press for four sets of four repetitions. Which of the following is most likely their training goal? a. strength b. muscular endurance c. power Correct Answer ANSWER: a. strength EXPLANATION: When training an athlete for strength, assigning volume begins with an examination of the optimal number of repetitions for maximal strength gains. This appears to be sets of six or fewer repetitions for core exercises, according to research. Comprehensive reviews conclude that a range of two to five sets ore three to six sets promotes the greatest increases in strength. When applying this information to our athlete lifting four sets of
EXPLANATION:
Iron is an important mineral that is essential for both functioning and synthesis of hemoglobin, a protein that transfers oxygen throughout the body. Iron deficiency is the most prevalent nutrition deficiency in the world. There are three stages to iron deficiency:
- Depletion
- Marginal deficiency
- Anemia Distance runners, vegetarian athletes, female athletes, those who lose a significant amount of blood during their menstrual cycle, people who take excessive amounts of antacids, and people with certain types of digestive diseases such as celiac disease are more likely to have iron deficiencies. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 194- 195 When training aerobically, which chamber of the heart most increases in volume and wall thickness? a. left ventricle b. right atrium c. right ventricle Correct Answer ANSWER: a. left ventricle EXPLANATION: The left ventricle hypertrophies the most because of the repeated forceful contractions to increase blood flow during exercise. With aerobic training, the heart increases its cardiac output (stroke volume x heart rate), which primarily is due to increased stroke volume (blood ejected with each beat). The parasympathetic tone (part of the autonomic nervous system) will attempt to keep the heart rate low. Due to the heart rate wanting to remain low, the stroke volume becomes the reason for the cardiac output. When the stroke volume increases, it will cause an increase in the left ventricle's size. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 6, pg 121- 122
What exercise might an athlete perform in an attempt to reduce lower body bilateral asymmetries? a. single-leg squat b. front squat c. back squat Correct Answer ANSWER: a. single-leg squat EXPLANATION: Adding unilateral exercises to your program can help to reduce bilateral asymmetries. Single-leg squats, also known as a Bulgarian split squats, are an example of a unilateral exercise for the lower body. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 16, pg 421 To comply with ADA accessibility requirements, what should be the minimum width for walkways to keep proper traffic flow? a. 48 inches (122 cm) b. 60 inches (152 cm) c. 36 inches (91 cm) Correct Answer ANSWER: c. 36 inches (91 cm) EXPLANATION: Traffic flow is heavily influenced by equipment placement. Most facilities are one big room, and walkways can be created via arrangement of the equipment. Most racks are machines are best placed lined up in a row running the length of the facility. This usually creates two or three main walkways which should be at least 36 inches (91 cm) wide. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 23, pg 629
standard, the recognized measure of the construct; field tests utilized by strength and conditioning professionals should exhibit this form of validity. Measured by the extent to which the test score corresponds with future behavior or performance. This can be measured through comparison of a test score with some measure of success in the sport itself. For example, in basketball, predictive validity can show how a battery of tests correlates to game performance, such as points, scored, rounds, assists, etc. Discriminant validity is the ability of a test to distinguish between two different constructs and is evidenced by a low correlation between the results and those tests of a different construct. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 12, pg 251 - 252 What is the goal of consuming fluids just before beginning exercise? a. to avoid dehydration during exercise b. to rehydrate before the next training session c. to replace lost fluids Correct Answer ANSWER: to avoid dehydration during exercise EXPLANATION: Ideally, athletes should start exercise or training in a hydrated state, avoid losing more than 2% of body weight (due to sweat loss) during exercise, and rehydrate completely after exercise and before the next training session. They should rehydrate several hours before exercise to allow for fluid absorption and urine output. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 198 The biceps femoris contracts concentrically to produce which of the following movements of the knee? a. rotation b. flexion c. extension Correct Answer ANSWER:
b. flexion EXPLANATION: The biceps femoris is one of the muscles making up the hamstrings. Collectively, the hamstrings help to perform flexion of the knee. A concentric movement of the biceps femoris means the muscles are creating a larger force. This allows the muscles to shorten and flex the knee. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 2, pg 32 In the power clean, the bar is racked on the athlete's shoulders and clavicles. A common problem with this position is the poor posture of trunk flexion. As a personal trainer, what suggestion would you make to remedy your client's posture issue? a. retract the scapulae and engage the ankle flexors b. open up the sternum and widen the grip on the bar c. make sure the scapulae are depressed and retracted Correct Answer ANSWER: c. make sure the scapulae are depressed and retracted EXPLANATION: Get the scapulae depressed and retracted in the starting position of the power clean. This will pop out the chest and create better posture at the torso for beginning this power exercise. In addition to depressed and retracted scapulae, having the eyes focused straight ahead can be helpful in keeping the torso up straight. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 404 - 405 Which, if any, of the following groups or individuals are typically allowed the use of a strength and conditioning facility at an institution? a. friends of newly incoming student athletes b. members of the community
c. 60-75% maximum heart rate Correct Answer ANSWER: a. 80-85% maximum heart rate EXPLANATION: 220 - 20 = 195 max heart rate according to the athlete's age. 80-85% maximum heart rate for a 25-year-old is between 156 and 165 bpm, calculated by the Karnoven method or the 220 - age method. While the Karvonen method and the percentage of maximal heart rate formula provide practical intensity assignments, basing them on age-predicted maximal heart rates may entail some inaccuracies when exercise intensity is being monitored during cycling or running. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 20, pg 563 As a personal trainer, what advice would you offer your client if he request a nutrition plan for weight loss? a. refer the client to a registered dietitian b. counsel the client and prescribe a weight loss plan c. conduct a nutrition assessment with the client Correct Answer ANSWER: a. refer the client to a registered dietitian EXPLANATION: A personal trainer, or even a strength and conditioning specialist, should have a general understanding of nutrition to help guide clients/athletes. However, providing nutrition plans is outside the scope of their duties. Dietitians should be the people to turn to for nutrition advice. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 176- 177 The filaments that are pulled across during a contraction are attached to which structure of the sarcomere? a. A-band
b. Z-line c. H zone Correct Answer ANSWER: b. Z-line EXPLANATION: The smallest contractile unit within a muscle, a sarcomere, is organized specifically to create efficient muscle contraction. Myosin and actin connect to each other via a corss bridge and overlap one another to create tight pulls. Some of the organizational structures of a sarcomere are:
- A-band: contains actin and myosin overlap areas
- I-band: contains only actin
- H zone: contains only myosin
- Z-line: thin dark line running longitudinally through I-band The thin filaments (actin) that are pulled across the thick filaments (myosin) during a concentric contraction are anchored to the Z-line Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 1, pg 7 Ben thinks he may require assistance during the last rep of his bench press, and he asks Dave to help him. Which of the following is not true of Dave's responsibility as a spotter? a. spotters are rarely required to handle the entire load when assisting an athlete to complete a repetition b. typically, athletes need just enough help to complete a repetition c. spotters are usually required to handle the entire load when assisting an athlete to complete a repetition Correct Answer ANSWER: c. spotters are usually required to handle the entire load when assisting an athlete to complete a repetition EXPLANATION: While in a partner-assisted action, athletes may need a limited amount of help to complete a repetition; knowledge about how much and when to help requires experience. Spotters must be alert to indications that the athlete is having a problem and, when taking the weight, they should act quickly and smoothly to avoid abrupt changes in the load being handled by the athlete.
(MAS) refers to the capacity to experience pride in one's accomplishments and is characterized by a desire to challenge oneself and evaluate one's abilities. Motive to avoid failure (MAF) relates to the desire to protect one's ego and self-esteem. MAF is not really about avoiding the perception of shame that accompanies the failure. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 8, pg 162 A group of ten athletes performed a vertical jump test and received scores of 28, 29.5, 24, 30, 27, 28, 32.5, 30.5, 26, and 27 inches. What is the range of this group of scores? a. 10 b. 14. c. 8.5 Correct Answer ANSWER: c. 8. EXPLANATION: The range is the difference between the highest and lowest scores. It is a measure of variability. Given values: 28, 29.5, 24, 30, 27, 28, 32.5, 30.5, 26, 27 lowest value: 24 highest value: 32. 32.5 - 24 = 8. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 13, pg 291 Which of the following statements about diet planning is false? a. caloric intake will be similar for all individuals, whether an athlete or a sedentary person b. age, body size, and sex should be taken into consideration when planning an athlete's diet c. basic nutritional principles for both health and disease prevention should be followed when planning an athlete's diet Correct Answer ANSWER:
a. caloric intake will be similar for all individuals, whether an athlete or a sedentary person EXPLANATION: Acompetitive athlete has very different physiological needs from individuals who are sedentary, as well as those competing in other sports. Those who are more active should adjust their diets to meet their specific needs. They need a higher daily intake of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats, as well as vitamins and minerals. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 9, pg 178- 179 A strength coach prescribes the bench press to a group of athletes. Which primary muscle group is the coach targeting? a. deltoids b. pectoralis major c. triceps brachii Correct Answer ANSWER: b. pectoralis major EXPLANATION: The bench press is the most popular exercise for the pectoralis major. As the athlete works the bar up and down over the chest, the pectoralis major is the major muscle group involved in performing that task. Other muscles involved are the anterior deltoids and triceps, but those muscles act more as synergists than agonists. Essentials of Strength Training and Conditioning, 4th Edition. Ch 15, pg 371 - 372 Which of the following are appropriate stretches for the adductor brevis, adductor longus, and adductor magnus? a. wall stretch and straddle b. sitting toe touch and semi straddle
