NSG 3160 / NSG3160 Exam 4 (NEW 2026–2027) Health Assessment Review | Questions and answer, Exams of Nursing

NSG 3160 / NSG3160 Exam 4 (NEW 2026–2027) Health Assessment Review | Questions with Multiple Choices Answers | Guaranteed Grade A- Galen

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NSG 3160 / NSG3160 Exam 4 (NEW 20262027)
Health Assessment Review | Questions with Multiple
Choices Answers | Guaranteed Grade A- Galen
Q. Select the sequence of techniques used during an examination of the abdomen.
A. percussion, inspection, palpation, auscultation
B. inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
C. inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
D. auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
ANSWER
C. inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
Q. Which of the following can be noted through inspection of a patient's abdomen?
A. Fluid waves and abdominal rigidity.
B. Umbilical eversion and Murphy sign.
C. Venous pattern, peristaltic waves, and abdominal contour.
D. Peritoneal irritation, general tympany, and peristaltic waves.
ANSWER
C. Venous pattern, peristaltic waves, and abdominal contour.
Q. Right upper quadrant tenderness may indicate pathology in the:
A. Liver, pancreas, or ascending colon.
B. Liver and stomach.
C. Sigmoid colon, spleen, or rectum.
D. Appendix or ileocecal valves.
ANSWER
A. Liver, pancreas, or ascending colon.
Q. Hyperactive bowel sounds are:
A. High-pitched.
B. Rushing.
C. Tinkling.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER
D. All of the above.
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NSG 3160 / NSG3160 Exam 4 (NEW 2026–2027)

Health Assessment Review | Questions with Multiple

Choices Answers | Guaranteed Grade A- Galen

Q. Select the sequence of techniques used during an examination of the abdomen.

A. percussion, inspection, palpation, auscultation B. inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation C. inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation D. auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion ANSWER C. inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

Q. Which of the following can be noted through inspection of a patient's abdomen?

A. Fluid waves and abdominal rigidity. B. Umbilical eversion and Murphy sign. C. Venous pattern, peristaltic waves, and abdominal contour. D. Peritoneal irritation, general tympany, and peristaltic waves. ANSWER C. Venous pattern, peristaltic waves, and abdominal contour.

Q. Right upper quadrant tenderness may indicate pathology in the:

A. Liver, pancreas, or ascending colon. B. Liver and stomach. C. Sigmoid colon, spleen, or rectum. D. Appendix or ileocecal valves. ANSWER A. Liver, pancreas, or ascending colon.

Q. Hyperactive bowel sounds are:

A. High-pitched. B. Rushing. C. Tinkling. D. All of the above. ANSWER D. All of the above.

Q. The absence of bowel sounds is established after listening for:

A. 1 full minute. B. 3 full minutes. C. 5 full minutes. D. None of the above. ANSWER C. 5 full minutes.

Q. Auscultation of the abdomen may reveal bruits of the ___________ arteries.

A. Aortic, renal, iliac, and femoral. B. Jugular, aortic, carotid, and femoral. C. Pulmonic, aortic, and portal. D. Renal, iliac, internal jugular, and basilic. ANSWER A. Aortic, renal, iliac, and femoral.

Q. The left upper quadrant (LUQ) contains the:

A. Liver. B. Appendix. C. Left ovary. D. Spleen. ANSWER D. Spleen.

Q. Auscultating the abdomen is begun in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) because:

A. Bowel sounds are always normally present here. B. Peristalsis through the descending colon is usually active. C. This is the location of the pyloric sphincter. D. Vascular sounds are best heard in this area. ANSWER A. Bowel sounds are always normally present here.

Q. A positive Blumberg sign indicates:

A. Possible aortic aneurysm. B. Presence of renal artery stenosis. C. Enlarged nodular liver. D. Peritoneal inflammation. ANSWER D. Peritoneal inflammation.

Q. The examiner is going to inspect and palpate for a hernia. During this examination, the man is instructed

to: A. Hold his breath during palpation. B. Cough after the examiner has gently inserted the examination finger into the rectum. C. Bear down when the examiner's finger is at the inguinal canal. D. Relax in a supine position while the examination finger is inserted into the canal. ANSWER C. Bear down when the examiner's finger is at the inguinal canal.

Q. During examination of the scrotum, a normal finding would be that:

A. The left testicle is firmer to palpation than the right. B. The left testicle is larger than the right. C. The left testicle hangs lower than the right. D. The left testicle is more tender to palpation than the right. ANSWER C. The left testicle hangs lower than the right.

Q. H.T. has come to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Six months ago, he was started on a new medication that

may cause erectile dysfunction as a side effect; therefore medication classes explored by the nurse are: A. Antipyretics. B. Bronchodilators. C. Corticosteroids. D. Antihypertensives. ANSWER D. Antihypertensives.

Q. Prostatic hypertrophy occurs frequently in older men. The symptoms that may indicate this problem are:

A. Polyuria and urgency. B. Dysuria and oliguria. C. Straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine. D. Foul-smelling urine and dysuria. ANSWER C. Straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine.

Q. A 74-year-old man has come for health examination. A normal age-related change in the scrotum would

be: A. Testicular atrophy. B. Testicular hypertrophy. C. Pendulous scrotum. D. Increase in scrotal rugae. ANSWER D. Increase in scrotal rugae.

Q. During palpation of the testes, the normal finding would be:

A. Firm to hard and rough. B. Nodular. C. 2 to 3 cm long X 2 cm wide and firm. D. Firm, rubbery, and smooth. ANSWER D. Firm, rubbery, and smooth.

Q. A 20-year-old man has indicated that he does not perform testicular self-examination. One of the facts

that should be shared with him is the testicular cancer, although rare, does occur in men: A. Younger than 15 years. B. 15-34 years of age. C. 35-55 years of age. D. 55 years and older. ANSWER B. 15-34 years of age.

An adhesion of the prepuce to the head of the penis, making it impossible to retract, is: A. Paraphimosis. B. Phimosis. C. Smegma. D. Dyschezia. B. Phimosis. You are assessing an adolescent boy. The first physical sign of puberty is: A. Height spurt. B. Penis lengthening. C. Sperm production. D. Pubic har development. E. Testes enlargement. E. Testes enlargement. An older man asks if he is able to father children. In the aging male, when does infertility occur? A. At age 60, with the sudden decline in sperm production. B. At approximately age 55 to 60. when testosterone levels are lower. C. When the male is no longer able to achieve an erection. D. There is no specific age; men may be fertile into their 80s and 90s. D. There is no specific age; men may be fertile into their 80s and 90s. A patient has soft, moist, fleshly, painless papules around the anus. The examiner suspects this condition is: A. HSV-2. B. HPV. C. Gonorrhea. D. Peyronie disease. B. HPV. The gastrocolic reflex is: A. A peristaltic wave. B. The passage of meconium in the newborn. C. Another term for borborygmi. D. Reverse peristalsis. A. A peristaltic wave. Which population has the highest incidence of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)? A. European Americans. B. African Americans. C. Hispanics. D. Asians. B. African Americans.

Select the best description of the anal canal. A. 12-cm-long portion of the large intestine. B. Involuntary control of the parasympathetic nervous system. C. 3.8-cm-long outlet of the gastrointestinal tract. D. S-shaped portion of the colon. C. 3.8-cm-long outlet of the gastrointestinal tract. Foods that may be beneficial to reduce the risk for colon cancer include: A. Foods high in fiber. B. Foods low in fat. C. Foods high in protein. D. Foods high in carbohydrates. A. Foods high in fiber. Which finding in the prostate gland suggests prostate cancer? A. Symmetric smooth enlargement. B. Extreme tenderness to palpation. C. Boggy soft enlargement. D. Diffuse hardness. D. Diffuse hardness. Which is true regarding the bulbourethral gland? A. It can be palpated during an examination of a female patient. B. It can be palpated during an examination of both male and female patients. C. It can be palpated during an examination of a male patient. D. It cannot be assessed with a rectal examination. C. It can be palpated during an examination of a male patient. Normal stool is described as: A. Black in color and tarry in consistency. B. It can be palpated during an examination of both male and female patients. C. It can be palpated during an examination of a male patient. D. It cannot be assessed with a rectal examination. C. It can be palpated during an examination of a male patient. Which symptoms suggest benign prostatic hypertrophy? A. Weight loss and bone pain. B. Fever, chills, urinary frequency, and urgency. C. Difficulty initiating urination and weak streams. D. Dark, tarry stools. C. Difficulty initiating urination and weak streams. A patient stats that he is frequently constipated, and when he has a bowel movement he has rectal bleeding and pain. He does not feel any mass at his anal opening. "Do I have hemorrhoids, or is there something else wrong with me?" The examiner completes a rectal examination and explains that:

B. Irregular and slitlike. C. Irregular and circular. D. Smooth and enlarged. A. Smooth and circular. A woman has come for an examination because of a missed menstrual period and a positive at home pregnancy test. Examination reveals a cervix that appears cyanotic. This is referred to as the: A. Goodell sign. B. Hegar sign. C. Tanner sign. D. Chadwick sign. D. Chadwick sign. During the examination of the genitalia of a 70-year-old woman, a normal finding would be: A. Hypertrophy of the mons pubis. B. Increase in vaginal secretions. C. Thin and sparse pubic hair. D. Bladder prolapse. C. Thin and sparse pubic hair. For a woman, history of her mother's health during pregnancy is important. A medication that requires frequent follow-up is: A. Corticosteroid. B. Theophylline. C. Diethylstilbestrol. D. Aminoglycoside. C. Diethylstilbestrol. A woman has come for health care reporting a thick white discharge with intense itching. These symptoms are suggestive of: A. Atrophic vaginitis. B. Trichomoniasis. C. Chlamydia. D. Candidiasis. D. Candidiasis. To insert the speculum as comfortably as possible, the examiner: A. Opens the speculum slightly and inserts it in an upward direction. B. Presses the introitus down with one hand and inserts the blades obliquely with the other. C. Spreads the labia with one hand and inserts the closed speculum horizontally with the other. D. Pushes down on the introitus and inserts the speculum in an upward direction. B. Presses the introitus down with one hand and inserts the blades obliquely with the other. Before withdrawing the speculum, the examiner may swab the cervix with a swab soaked in acetic acid. This examination is done to assess for:

A. Herpes simplex virus. B. Contact dermatitis. C. Human papillomavirus. D. Carcinoma. C. Human papillomavirus. Select the best description of the uterus. A. Anteverted, round, asymmetric organ. B. Pear-shaped, thick-walled organ flattened anteroposteriorly. C. Retroverted, almond-shaped, asymmetric organ. D. Mid-position, thick-walled, oval organ. B. Pear-shaped, thick-walled organ flattened anteroposteriorly. In placing a finger on either side of the cervix and moving it side to side, you are assessing: A. The diameter of the fallopian tube. B. Cervical motion tenderness. C. The ovaries. D. The uterus. B. Cervical motion tenderness. Which of the following is (are) normal, common finding(s) on inspection and palpation of the vulva and perineum? A. Labia majora that are wide apart and gaping. B. Palpable Bartholin glands. C. Clear, thin discharge from paraurethral glands. D. Bulging at introitus during Valsalva maneuver. A. Labia majora that are wide apart and gaping. Which is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted infection in the United States? A. Chlamydia. B. Gonorrhea. C. Trichomoniasis. D. Syphilis. E. Bacterial Vaginosis. A. Chlamydia. What does the notation in a health record indicating the patient is a "G2 P3 Ab0" mean? A. The woman has delivered 3 children, 2 of whom are living; her blood type is Ab0. B. The woman has been pregnant twice with 3 children (twins and another child), and all her children are living. C. The woman has been pregnant 3 times, has delivered 2 children, and has had no abortions. D. The woman has been pregnant 3 times, has 2 living children, and has had no spontaneous abortions. B. The woman has been pregnant twice with 3 children (twins and another child), and all her children are living.

B. Carpal tunnel syndrome. C. Heberden nodes. D. Olecranon bursa inflammation. A. Swelling in the suprapatellar pouch. The examiner measures a patient's legs for length discrepancy. Which is a normal finding? A. No difference in measurements. B. 0.5 cm difference. C. Within 1 cm of each other. D. 2 cm difference. C. Within 1 cm of each other. A 2-year-old child comes to the clinic for a health examination. A common finding for this age group is: A. Kyphosis. B. Lordosis. C. Scoliosis. D. No deviation is normal. B. Lordosis. A positive Phalen test and Tinel sign are found in a patient with: A. A torn meniscus. B. Hallux valgus. C. Carpal tunnel syndrome. D. Tennis elbow. C. Carpal tunnel syndrome. When assessing an infant, the examiner completes the Ortolani maneuver by: A. Lifting the newborn and noting a C-shaped curvature of the spine. B. Gently lifting and abducting the infant's flexed knees while palpating the greater trochanter with the fingers. C. Comparing the height of the tops of the knees when the knees are flexed up. D. Palpating the length of the clavicles. B. Gently lifting and abducting the infant's flexed knees while palpating the greater trochanter with the fingers. Hematopoiesis takes place in which of the following? A. Liver. B. Spleen. C. Kidneys. D. Bone marrow. D. Bone marrow. Fibrous bands running directly from one bone to another that strengthen the joint and help prevent movement in undesirable directions are known as: A. Bursa. B. Tendons. C. Cartilage.

D. Ligaments. D. Ligaments. Flexion: Bending a limb at a joint. Extention: Straightening a limb at a joint. Abduction: Moving a limb away from the midline of the body. Adduction: Moving a limb toward the midline of the body. Pronation: Turning the forearm so that the palm is down. Supination: Turning the forearm so that the palm is up. Circumduction: Moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder. Inversion: Moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle. Eversion: Moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle. Rotation: Moving the head around a central axis. Protraction: Moving the body part forward and parallel to the ground. Retraction: Moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground.

Moving a limb away from the midline of the body Eversion Moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle. Toe pointing down Inversion Moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle. Toe pointing up Pronation Turning the forearm so the palm is down Rotation: Moving the head around a central axis Supination Turning the forearm so the palm is facing up Protraction Moving a body part forward and parallel to the round. Pushing chin forward Retraction Moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground. Pulling chin back Circumduction Moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder. Softball pitch Elevation Raising a body part. Shrugging the shoulder up Depression Lowering a body part. Pushing shoulders down Scrotum Loose protective sac, Large sebaceous follicles, Deeply pigmented, wrinkled skin folds (rugae) Penis Smegma may be present especially on uncircumcised male (Smegma- keeps penis lubricated and moisturized) Urgency

Abrupt, strong and overwhelming need to urinate Dysuria Pain or burning with urination Nocturia Urination during the night Oliguria diminished urination; < 400 mL/24 hours Polyuria frequent urination, excessive quantity Testicular Cancer Not common but no early symptoms, Cure rate is 100% if treated before metastasis Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia NOT cancerous but may need to be surgically removed if it impacts the ability to urinate. Can cause obstructed urine stream and risk for UTI Dementia Progressive, Sun downing; as the sun goes down the patient goes up (up and moving, walking around at night) Delirium Quick onset Mild Synovitis Occurs with synovial thickening or excessive fluid. On inspection note mild distension of the suprapatellar pouch Phalen Test reproduces numbness and burning with carpal tunnel syndrome (hold position for 60 seconds) Tinel Sign Percussion of the median nerve produces burning and tingling along its distributions with carpal tunnel syndrome Anorexia

RUQ

Liver, gallbladder RLQ appendix, cecum, ascending colon LUQ Spleen stomach and a portion of the colon LLQ Descending colon, sigmoid colon Gallbladder Helps with digesting fat, closer to the back than the front (under the liver) Stomach Located in RUQ and LUQ (looks like a tea cup) Reflux Lay on the right side (left side will cause reflux to come up) Spleen Do not touch or mess with! About 7cm. Not palpable normally. Located in LUQ Pancreas Behind the stomach, mushy sponge, secretes out insulin Liver Can measure up to 12cm Kidney Sitting at the 11th and 12 ribs. Right: rests 1-2 cm lower than the left kidney Aorta Bifurcates into 2 branches approx., 2cm below umbilicus Costovertebral Angle (CVA) 12th Rib; Normally no pain, only a thud is felt. Sharp pain= is felt w/inflammation of the kidney.

Fat Accumulates in the suprapubic area in females because of decreased estrogen levels. Salvation decreases dry mouth and decreased taste Delayed esophageal emptying increased risk for aspiration Decreased gastric acid secretions May cause decreased B12 absorption (pernicious anemia), iron deficiency anemia, malabsorption of calcium S/S B12 Deficiency tired, numb and tingle in toes (miss-firing of muscle fibers), brain fog, leg lag Incidence of gallstones increases especially in women (fat increased and gallbladder gets kicked into high gear which created gallstones) Liver size decreases by 25% reduced metabolism of medication GI Aging adult Increased constipation (chronic), not physiologic Decreased salivation Delayed esophageal emptying Decreased gastric acid Increased risk for gallstones (common in females) Liver size decreases 25%, decreases drug metabolism rate Lactose Intolerance o 100%- Native American o 80%- African American o 70%- Hispanic American o 20-30%- White American Celiac Disease less than 1%; Intolerance to gluten in wheat, barley, rye, and some oats Black tarry stool