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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD. NSG 318 Exam 3 – Pharmacology. Grand Canyon University. Complete exam-style Q&A with study guide. No fluff. Organized practice questions to help you review fast and prepare confidently. NSG 318 exam 3 pharmacology, Grand Canyon University pharmacology, NSG 318 study guide exam 3, GCU NSG 318 exam 3, NSG 318 practice questions, Nursing pharmacology exam 3, NSG 318 2026, Grand Canyon NSG 318, NSG 318 test bank, Pharmacology study guide GCU, NSG 318 exam review, GCU nursing exam prep, NSG 318 practice test version 3, NSG 318 Q&A pharmacology, Pharmacology rationales exam 3, NSG 318 pharm prep
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NSG 318 Exam 3 ........................................................... 2
NSG 318 EXAM 3 STUDY GUIDE ................................ 31
NSG 318 Exam 3
Which assessment finding in the client's chart demonstrates to the nurse that albuterol administration was effective? SATA A. Clear lung sounds B. No evidence of side effects C. Albuterol level > 20 mcg/mL D. Ambulating three times a day E. Free from cardiac dysrhythmias
Answer:
A, B, D, E
Which drug disrupts the inflammatory response and is indicated for the treatment of asthma? A. Salmeterol B. Ipatropium C. Montelukast D. Theophylline
Answer:
C
Which OTC drug categories are available for the treatment of cough? SATA A. Analgesics B. Antitussives C. Expectorants
Answer:
B
Which instruction will a nurse provide a client receiving dextromethorphan for cough to ensure safe administration? A. Use a humidifier while sleeping B. Elevate your bed while sleeping C. Increase your fluid intake to 3000 mL per day D. Restrict activities that require mental alertness
Answer:
D
Which is the correct mechanism of action of dextrompethorphan? A. Acts on the medulla to suppress the cough reflex B. Changes a productive cough into a nonproductive cough C. Loosens bronchial secretions to be eliminated by coughing D. Acts in combination with a histamine 1 (H1) antihistamine to decrease rhinitis
Answer:
A
Which mode of action is associated with the drug tiotropium? SATA A. Dilates bronchi B. Antagonizes acetylcholine action C. Relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchi D. Blockes muscarinic cholinergic receptors E. Stimulates the CNS
Answer:
A, B, C, D
Which client condition would be appropriately treated by prescribed antibiotic? A. Watery nasal discharge and sneezing
B. Watery eyes and runny or stuffy nose C. Itchy throat and watery nasal discharge D. Tenacious, yellow discharge and nasal congestion
Answer:
D
Which adverse drug reaction may occur with dextrompethorphan hydrobromide? A. Psychosis B. Agranulocytosis C. Hemolytic anemia D. Hypotension
Answer:
A
Which side effect may occur in a client receiving tiotropium? SATA A. Myalgia B. Insomnia C. Dry mouth D. Constipation E. Hypoglycemia
Answer:
A, B, C, D
Which type of drug will a nurse expect to be included in the treatment plan of a client who comes to the ED with urticaria following contact with shrubs? A. Antitussive B. Expectorant C. Antihistamine D. Decongestant
Answer:
C. Palpitations D. Constipation
Answer:
A
Which antihistamine drug is most likely to cause significant drowsiness? A. Cetirizine B. Loratadine C. Fexofenadine D. Diphenhydramine
D
Which drug can be recommended to a client for the treatment of the common cold? A. Antibiotic B. Antihistamine C. Opioid antitussive D. Intranasal glucocorticoid
B
Which client teaching would the nurse include regarding the safe use of tiotropium in a client with bronchospasm associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder? A. Be sure to avoid eating chocolates B. You should increase your fluid intake C. This medication should be taken in the evening D. Wash the HandiHaler with warm water and dry before use
D
Which adverse drug effect is the nurse alert for in an older adult client taking diphenhydramine? A. Insomnia B. Hay fever
C. Hypertension D. Urinary retention
D
Which statement contains the most important info to share with a client receiving diphenhydramine? A. Do not drive after taking this drug B. Take this drug on an empty stomach C. Do not take this drug for more than 2 days D. Make sure you drink a lot of liquids while on this drug
A
Which assessment question would the nurse ask before administering an albuterol inhaler to a client with asthma? A. Do you have an allergy to milk B. Do you have an autoimmune disorder C. When was the last time you ate or drank D. Have you ever taken this med before
A
Which instruction would the nurse include when teaching a client about the proper use of metered-dose inhalers? A. After you inhale the medication once, repeat until you obtain relief B. Make sure that you puff out air repeatedly after you inhale the drug C. Hold your breath for a few seconds, If you can, after you inhale the drug D. Hold the inhaler in your mouth, take a deep breath, and then compress the inhaler
C
Which instruction would the nurse provide to a client who has been diagnosed with diabetes and is taking a beta2 agonist? A. This may cause your blood sugar to be lower B. This may cause your blood sugar to be higher
C. Administering a short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agnoist D. Administering a long-acting glucocorticoid
C
Which adverse reaction would the nurse include in client teaching regarding the use of albuterol? A. Hypoglycemia B. Drowsiness C. Hypotension D. Tachycardia
D
Which client condition listed in the medical record would be concerning to the nurse when reviewing the medication reconciliation list and noting a new prescription for tiotropium? A. Gout B. Diabetes C. Hypertension D. Narrow-angle glaucoma
D
Which response would the nurse give to a client who states that an albuterol metered-dose inhaler (MDI) does not seem to provide effective relief? SATA A. Is the canister empty B. Show me how you use your MDI C. You probably need a different prescription D. Do you have a spacer attached to your device? E. How often do you use the medication?
A, B, D, E
Which symptom will a nurse monitor in a client with suspected digoxin toxicity? SATA A. Anorexia
B. Vomiting C. Dry cough D. Visual disturbances E. Cardiac dyshyrthmias
A, B, D, E
Which info would a nurse include in discharge teaching to a client prescribed digoxin and hydrochlorothiazide for the management of heart failure? SATA A. Obtain pulse before taking digoxin dose B. Do not take OTC meds without talking with a HCP C. Include foods high in potassium in the diet D. Report signs of toxicity such as blurred vision E. Hold drug for heart rate less than 60 bpm
A, B, C, D, E
Which adverse effect would the nurse educate a client about who has been prescribed diltiazem? A. Hyperkalemia B. Blurred vision C. Fluid retention D. Erectile dysfunction
C
The nurse reviews the history of a client with angina who is prescribed propranolol. Which action will be the nurse's priority when noting that the client has a history of asthma? A. Seek a bronchodilator prescription B. Administer the drug as prescribed C. Administer half the prescribed dose of the drug D. Ask the HCP to switch to another drug
D
C. Conduction velocity D. Myocardial contractility
A
Which instruction does a nurse provide a client who reports headaches associated with administration of sublingual nitroglycerin? A. Stop taking the tabs immediately B. These headaches may be treated with acetaminophen C. You should take a lower dose of the drug D. You should immediately undergo diagnostic testing
B
Which rationale explains why a nurse would ask a client newly prescribed digoxin to stop taking licorice supplementation? A. Licorice may increase the risk for hyperkalemia B. Licorice may reduce the effects of digoxin C. Licorice may increase the risk for hypomagnesemia D. Licorice enhances the effect of digoxin
D
Which class of drugs is used in the treatment of angina pectoris? SATA A. Diuretics B. Beta blockers C. Antihistamines D. Nitrates and nitrites E. Calcium channel blockers (CCBs)
B, D, E
Which statement by a nurse about the use of medicinal nitrates indicates effective understanding? A. They slow conduction B. They dilate all blood vessels
C. Medicinal nitrates have no adverse effects D. Medicinal nitrates are used for atrial fibrillation
B
The nurse is providing education to a client who will begin digoxin. Which food would the nurse instruct the client to consume to increase serum potassium levels? SATA A. Broccoli B. Eggplant C. Potatoes D. Cauliflower E. Orange juice
C, E
Which finding in the client's medication profile indicates a need to contact the HCP if the nurse is preparing to administer spironolactone to a client with cirrhosis? A. Lisinopril B. Diltiazem C. Metoprolol D. Hydralazine
A
Which interventions would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client taking spironolactone? SATA A. Assess renal function B. Weigh client every day C. Obtain serum electrolytes D. Monitor urinary output E. Offer high-potassium foods
A, B, C, D
Which description is accurate regarding the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)? A. Block alpha-adrenergic receptors to cause vasodilation B. Act by relaxing the smooth muscles of blood vessels, mainly arteries C. Inhibit formation of angiotensin II and block the release of aldosterone D. Block the calcium channel in the vascular smooth muscles, promoting vasodilation
C
Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction if the nurse is teaching the client about newly prescribed catopril? A. I should take my medication about half an hour before a meal B. I will avoid stopping this med suddenly C. Irritating cough and swollen lips are to be expected. D. I will stop using salt substitutes while taking this medication
C
Which drug(s) blocks angiotensin II from the angiotensin I receptors? SATA A. Losartan potassium B. Valsartan C. Moexipril D. Captopril E. Irbesartan F. Diltiazem HCl
A,B,E
Which drug(s) would the nurse expect the primary HCP to prescribe for an African American client diagnosed with low-renin hypertension? SATA A. Beta blockers B. Alpha1 blockers C. Calcium channel blockers (CCBs) D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors E. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
Which drug is associated with a constant, irritated, and nonproductive cough in some clients? A. Angiotensin II-receptor blockers B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors C. Beta blockers D. Calcium channel blockers
B
Which side effect(s) would a nurse monitor for after administering lisinopril to a client? SATA A. Anemia B. Dry cough C. Hematuria D. Anuria E. Hyperkalemia
B,E
Which instruction will be included in the discharge teaching for a client with a transdermal nitroglycerin patch? A. Apply the patch to a nondairy, nonfat area of the chest, arm or thigh B. If you get a headache, remove the patch for 4 hours and then reapply C. If you experience chest pain, apply a second patch right next to the first patch D. Apply the patch to the same site each day to maintain consistent drug absorption
A
Which drug class is used as the first line of therapy fro reducing fluid volume in clients with heart failure (HF)? A. Nitrates B. Diuretics C. Beta blockers D. Calcium channel blockers
Which statement by the nurse about beta blockers is accurate? A. they work by increasing myocardial contractility B. Beta blockers increase the client's urine output C. They work by increasing dilation of the peripheral vessels D. Beta blockers decrease sympathetic stimulation of the heart
D
Which concomitantly administered drug will cause the nurse to monitor serum potassium levels in a client who is also receiving digoxin for heart failure? A. Lisinopril B. Valsartan C. Furosemide D. Spironolactone
C
Which condition indicates an excessive dose of digoxin? A. Polyuria B. Tinnnitus C. Halo vision D. Photophobia
C
Which statement made by a client demonstrates a need for further instruction regarding the use of sublingual nitroglycerin? A. I should keep my nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place that is protected from light B. I should change positions slowly to avoid getting dizzy C. I can take up to 5 tablets at 3-minute intervals for chest pain if necessary D. If I get a headache, I should keep taking nitroglycerin and use acetaminophen for pain relief
C
Which effect do beta blockers have on classic (stable) angina? A. No effect
B. Decrease HR C. Reduce vasospasms D. Relax coronary arteries
B
Which drug is a calcium channel blocker? A. Diltiazem B. Metoprolol C. Propranolol D. Nitroglycerin
A
Which side effect is common with nitrates, beta blockers, and calcium channel blockers? A. Heartburn B. Heart failure C. Hypotension D. Hyperkalemia
C
Which phrase describes how a diuretic lowers blood pressure? A. Decreases urine flow B. Maintains calcium balance C. Removes excess potassium D. Blocks sodium and water reabsorption
D
Which results would the nurse expect to be decreased if the nurse is reviewing the lab results of a client taking hydrochlorothiazide? SATA A. Chloride B. Calcium C. Potassium
