Download NSG 3250 Adult Health I 2026/2027 Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale | Newest and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity!
NSG 3250 Adult Health I 2026/
Questions and Correct Answers with
Rationale | Newest Update | Galen College
of Nursing
1. A patient presents with crushing chest pain radiating to the jaw. What is the priority nursing action? A. Obtain a complete health history B. Administer oxygen C. Provide food D. Encourage ambulation Correct Answer: B Rationale: Oxygen increases myocardial oxygen supply and is a priority intervention in suspected myocardial infarction. 2. Which laboratory value is most specific for myocardial infarction? A. CK-MB B. Myoglobin C. Troponin D. BNP Correct Answer: C Rationale: Troponin is the most specific and sensitive biomarker for myocardial injury. 3. A patient with left-sided heart failure is most likely to exhibit which symptom?
A. Peripheral edema B. Ascites C. Dyspnea D. Hepatomegaly Correct Answer: C Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion leading to shortness of breath.
4. Rapid weight gain of 3 pounds in 24 hours in a heart failure patient indicates: A. Improved nutrition B. Fluid retention C. Dehydration D. Increased muscle mass Correct Answer: B Rationale: Sudden weight gain reflects fluid accumulation and worsening heart failure. 5. Which position best decreases preload in heart failure? A. Supine B. High Fowler’s C. Trendelenburg D. Prone Correct Answer: B Rationale: High Fowler’s position reduces venous return and decreases cardiac workload. 6. The main purpose of administering furosemide to a heart failure patient is to: A. Increase heart rate B. Improve contractility C. Reduce fluid volume D. Raise blood pressure
A. Nasal cannula B. Simple mask C. Venturi mask D. Non-rebreather mask Correct Answer: D Rationale: A non-rebreather mask can deliver up to 100% oxygen.
11. A patient with pneumonia may exhibit which assessment finding? A. Clear lung sounds B. Productive cough C. Bradycardia D. Hypothermia Correct Answer: B Rationale: Pneumonia commonly presents with productive cough and abnormal lung sounds. 12. The priority nursing action for a patient with severe hypoxia is to: A. Encourage fluids B. Administer oxygen C. Place in supine position D. Obtain weight Correct Answer: B Rationale: Oxygen therapy is the first intervention for hypoxia. 13. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients taking loop diuretics? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, causing hypokalemia.
14. A blood glucose level of 52 mg/dL indicates: A. Hyperglycemia B. Normal range C. Hypoglycemia D. Ketoacidosis Correct Answer: C Rationale: Blood glucose below 70 mg/dL is considered hypoglycemia. 15. The first symptom of hypoglycemia is often: A. Polyuria B. Confusion C. Diaphoresis D. Bradycardia Correct Answer: C Rationale: Sweating is an early adrenergic symptom of low blood glucose. 16. Which finding is most concerning in a patient with diabetes? A. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL B. Fruity breath odor C. Weight loss D. Increased appetite Correct Answer: B Rationale: Fruity breath indicates ketoacidosis, a life-threatening condition. 17. Which diet recommendation is appropriate for hypertension?
21. A patient with anemia is likely to experience: A. Hypertension B. Fatigue C. Bradycardia D. Cyanosis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity leads to fatigue. 22. Which lab value indicates anemia? A. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL B. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL C. WBC 7, D. Platelets 250, Correct Answer: B Rationale: Hemoglobin below normal range indicates anemia. 23. A sign of deep vein thrombosis includes: A. Bilateral leg swelling B. Cool extremity C. Calf pain D. Pallor Correct Answer: C Rationale: Calf pain and tenderness are classic DVT symptoms. 24. Which medication is commonly used to treat DVT? A. Insulin B. Heparin C. Furosemide D. Metformin Correct Answer: B Rationale: Heparin prevents clot extension and formation.
25. A patient receiving heparin should be monitored for: A. Hypertension B. Bleeding C. Hyperglycemia D. Fever Correct Answer: B Rationale: Heparin increases bleeding risk. 26. Which symptom is common in gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? A. Right lower quadrant pain B. Heartburn C. Hematuria D. Cyanosis Correct Answer: B Rationale: GERD typically presents with burning chest discomfort after meals. 27. A complication of untreated GERD is: A. Asthma B. Barrett’s esophagus C. Appendicitis D. Cholecystitis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Chronic acid exposure may lead to Barrett’s esophagus. 28. Which intervention reduces GERD symptoms? A. Lying flat after meals B. Large meals C. Elevating head of bed D. Drinking alcohol
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Tachycardia is an early sign of hypovolemia.
33. A patient with pancreatitis should initially receive: A. High-fat diet B. NPO status C. Alcohol D. Laxatives Correct Answer: B Rationale: NPO decreases pancreatic stimulation. 34. The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is: A. Hypertension B. Gallstones C. Asthma D. Anemia Correct Answer: B Rationale: Gallstones obstruct bile flow leading to pancreatic inflammation. 35. Which symptom is classic for pancreatitis? A. RLQ pain B. LUQ mild pain C. Severe epigastric pain radiating to back D. Pelvic pain Correct Answer: C Rationale: Pancreatitis causes severe epigastric pain radiating to the back. 36. Which lab value is elevated in pancreatitis? A. Hemoglobin B. Amylase
C. Potassium D. Sodium Correct Answer: B Rationale: Amylase and lipase rise with pancreatic inflammation.
37. A patient with cirrhosis may develop: A. Ascites B. Hypertension C. Hypoglycemia D. Polyuria Correct Answer: A Rationale: Portal hypertension leads to fluid accumulation in abdomen. 38. Which sign indicates hepatic encephalopathy? A. Clear speech B. Asterixis C. Tachycardia D. Hypertension Correct Answer: B Rationale: Asterixis (flapping tremor) indicates ammonia buildup. 39. Lactulose is given in liver disease to: A. Lower blood pressure B. Reduce ammonia levels C. Increase appetite D. Relieve pain Correct Answer: B Rationale: Lactulose helps eliminate ammonia through stool. 40. A patient with anemia should be encouraged to eat foods high in:
A. Massage bony areas B. Frequent repositioning C. Restrict fluids D. Keep skin moist Correct Answer: B Rationale: Turning reduces prolonged pressure.
45. Which finding suggests infection? A. WBC 4, B. Fever C. Bradycardia D. Hypothermia Correct Answer: B Rationale: Fever is a common sign of infection. 46. Standard precautions include: A. Mask for all patients B. Gloves when exposed to body fluids C. Gown at all times D. Isolation for all patients Correct Answer: B Rationale: Gloves are used when contact with body fluids is expected. 47. The most common cause of urinary tract infection is: A. Fungi B. E. coli C. Virus D. Parasite Correct Answer: B Rationale: E. coli from GI tract commonly causes UTIs. 48. A symptom of urinary tract infection is:
A. Chest pain B. Dysuria C. Cyanosis D. Wheezing Correct Answer: B Rationale: Dysuria (painful urination) is a hallmark symptom.
49. Which finding suggests hyperkalemia? A. Muscle weakness B. Increased reflexes C. Hypotension D. Polyuria Correct Answer: A Rationale: Elevated potassium causes muscle weakness and cardiac changes. 50. The priority intervention for a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is: A. Encourage bananas B. Administer potassium C. Notify provider immediately D. Restrict fluids Correct Answer: C Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia can cause fatal arrhythmias and requires immediate intervention. 51. A patient with hypokalemia is at greatest risk for which complication? A. Hypertension B. Cardiac dysrhythmias C. Hyperglycemia D. Pulmonary edema
A. Give oral fluids B. Check blood glucose C. Activate stroke protocol D. Obtain health history Correct Answer: C Rationale: These are classic stroke symptoms requiring immediate intervention.
56. The most common cause of ischemic stroke is: A. Hemorrhage B. Atherosclerosis C. Infection D. Trauma Correct Answer: B Rationale: Atherosclerosis leads to thrombus formation and vessel occlusion. 57. Which medication is used to dissolve clots in ischemic stroke? A. Aspirin B. Warfarin C. Alteplase D. Heparin Correct Answer: C Rationale: Alteplase (tPA) dissolves clots when given within the therapeutic window. 58. A contraindication for thrombolytic therapy is: A. Hypertension B. History of bleeding C. Diabetes D. Age over 65
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Thrombolytics increase bleeding risk and are contraindicated in active or recent bleeding.
59. Which sign suggests increased intracranial pressure? A. Bradycardia B. Widened pulse pressure C. Decreased level of consciousness D. All of the above Correct Answer: D Rationale: These are classic signs of increased intracranial pressure. 60. The priority nursing assessment after head injury is: A. Pain level B. Airway and neurologic status C. Intake and output D. Skin integrity Correct Answer: B Rationale: Airway and neurologic status are critical after head trauma. 61. A patient with seizure disorder should be placed in which position during a seizure? A. Supine B. Prone C. Side-lying D. Trendelenburg Correct Answer: C Rationale: Side-lying helps maintain airway and prevent aspiration. 62. Which medication is commonly used for seizure control?
66. Which factor commonly triggers MS exacerbations? A. Cold exposure B. Stress C. Exercise D. Low sodium Correct Answer: B Rationale: Stress can worsen MS symptoms and trigger relapses. 67. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is most likely to have: A. Joint stiffness in the morning B. Unilateral joint pain C. Pain relieved by rest D. Joint deformities absent Correct Answer: A Rationale: Morning stiffness is a hallmark of rheumatoid arthritis. 68. Which medication is commonly prescribed for rheumatoid arthritis inflammation? A. NSAIDs B. Insulin C. Antibiotics D. Diuretics Correct Answer: A Rationale: NSAIDs reduce inflammation and pain in rheumatoid arthritis. 69. A patient with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to: A. Avoid activity B. Maintain healthy weight C. Increase joint immobilization D. Avoid heat
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Weight reduction decreases joint stress.
70. Which finding differentiates osteoarthritis from rheumatoid arthritis? A. Autoimmune cause B. Systemic symptoms C. Asymmetric joint involvement D. Elevated ESR Correct Answer: C Rationale: Osteoarthritis typically affects joints asymmetrically. 71. A patient with osteoporosis is at increased risk for: A. Infection B. Fractures C. Muscle spasms D. Hypertension Correct Answer: B Rationale: Decreased bone density increases fracture risk. 72. Which nutrient is essential for bone health? A. Iron B. Vitamin C C. Calcium D. Potassium Correct Answer: C Rationale: Calcium is essential for bone strength and density. 73. A patient with a hip fracture should be assessed for: A. Pulmonary embolism B. Fat embolism syndrome C. Pneumonia D. Stroke
