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NSG 3280 EXAM 4 REVIEW QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS UPDATED (202 5 /202 6 )
(VERIFIED ANSWERS)
A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for: a. endocrine disorders. b. vascular abnormalities. c. female sex assignment. d. epispadias. - ANS ✓a. endocrine disorders. Erectile dysfunction is rarely because of: a. drug side effects. b. psychological factors. c. primary causes. d. vascular diseases. - ANS ✓c. primary causes. Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by a. sustained, painful erection. b. inability to retract the foreskin. c. inability to achieve erection. d. malpositioning of the urinary meatus. - ANS ✓b. inability to retract the foreskin.
Cryptorchidism is: a. associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer. b. an extremely uncommon disorder. c. rarely treated. d. a consequence of gonorrhea. - ANS ✓associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer. Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of: a. prostatitis. b. testicular cancer. c. testicular torsion. d. epididymitis. - ANS ✓c. testicular torsion A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristics of: a. prostatitis. b. urinary calculi. c. bladder carcinoma. d. prostatic enlargement. - ANS ✓d. prostatic enlargement The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as: a. hypospadias. b. urethral fistula. c. epispadias.
c. Anti-convulsants d. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors e. Papaverine phentolamine - ANS ✓d. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors e. Papaverine phentolamine Which medications can be prescribed for the treatment of premature ejaculation? (Select all that apply.) a. Clomipramine b. Paroxetine c. Lidocaine/prilocaine cream d. Sildenafil e. Tadalafil - ANS ✓a. Clomipramine b. Paroxetine c. Lidocaine/prilocaine cream Which of the following are correctable causes of male infertility? (Select all that apply.) a. Cryptorchidism b. Varicocele c. Retractile testes d. Bilateral testicular atrophy e. Ductal obstruction - ANS ✓a. Cryptorchidism b. Varicocele c. Retractile testes e. Ductal obstruction Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the:
a. cardinal ligaments. b. abdominal organs. c. cervix. d. vaginal musculature. - ANS ✓a. cardinal ligaments. Endometriosis is a condition in which: a. the endometrium sloughs continuously. b. ectopic endometrial tissue is present. c. an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic. d. the endometrium proliferates and does not shed. - ANS ✓b. ectopic endometrial tissue is present A change occurring in a pregnant woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is: a. increased metabolic rate. b. 30% to 40% increase in cardiac output. c. increased oxygen consumption. d. increased urinary protein. - ANS ✓d. increased in urinary protein Absence of menstruation is called: a. amenorrhea. b. metrorrhagia. c. menorrhagia. d. dysmenorrhea. - ANS ✓a. amenorrhea
d. early menarche and late first pregnancy. - ANS ✓d. early menarche and late first pregnancy. A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing: a. dysmenorrhea. b. menorrhagia. c. amenorrhea. d. metrorrhagia. - ANS ✓a. dysmenorrhea Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as: a. placenta previa. b. hyperemesis gravidarum. c. abruptio placentae. d. spontaneous abortion. - ANS ✓b. Hyperemesis gravidarum The expected treatment of a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is: a. immediate cesarean section. b. seizure prophylaxis. c. surgical removal of uterine contents. d. intravenous therapy. - ANS ✓D. intravenous therapy. Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) - to hold the uterus in place.
a. catheter. b. IUD. c. pessary. d. endopelvic mesh implant. - ANS ✓c. pessary. Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the - test. a. Papanicolaou b. human papillomavirus c. gonorrhoeae d. vaginal pH - ANS ✓a. Papanicolaou The most common types of uterine tumors are known as: a. ovarian cysts. b. endometriomas. c. hydatidiform moles. d. leiomyomas. - ANS ✓d. leiomyomas. A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely: a. fibrocystic breast disease. b. fibroadenoma. c. papilloma. d. carcinoma. - ANS ✓D. Carcinoma A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a:
c. Peripheral edema d. Increased arterial pressure Which pharmacologic treatments may be seen in a patient with breast cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Estrogen receptor modulators b. Estrogen antagonists c. Anti-inflammatory agents d. Estrogen/progesterone combination therapies e. Antineoplastic agents - ANS ✓a. Estrogen receptor modulators b. Estrogen antagonists e. Antineoplastic agents Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked) recessive disorders include a. all daughters of affected fathers being carriers. b. boys and girls being equally affected. c. the son of a carrier female having a 25% chance of being affected. d. affected fathers transmitting the gene to all their sons. - ANS ✓a. all daughters of affected fathers being carriers. A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during a. birth. b. conception. c. the first trimester. d. the last trimester. - ANS ✓c. the first trimester.
Results of biochemical tests indicate an infant has phenylketonuria (PKU). The parents ask what PKU means. Which response indicates the nurse needs to review this information? a. - PKU is an enzyme deficiency resulting in the inability to metabolize b. phenylalanine. b. - PKU is an inborn error of metabolism. c. - PKU results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction. d. - PKU is transmitted as an autosomal-recessive disorder. - ANS ✓c. PKU results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction. The parents of a child with PKU are concerned about the risk of transmitting the disorder in future pregnancies. The correct assessment of the risk is : a. each child has a 25% chance of being a carrier. b. each child has a 25% chance of being affected. c. since one child is already affected, the next three children will be unaffected. d. one cannot predict the risk for future pregnancies. - ANS ✓B. each child has a 25% chance of being affected Information parents should be given about the consequences of PKU includes a. high dietary phenylalanine may help induce enzyme production. b. PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies. c. failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive cognitive impairment. d. cognitive impairment is inevitable. - ANS ✓c. failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive cognitive impairment.
d. liver and intestine. - ANS ✓c. lungs and pancreas. Huntington disease is often transferred to offspring before a parent knows of the genetic possibility of this disease, because a. symptoms are so mild that they are not recognized. b. symptoms often do not occur until approximately 40 years of age. c. genetic testing for the disease is not possible. d. the genetic alteration is rarely expressed. - ANS ✓b. symptoms often do not occur until approximately 40 years of age. Huntington disease primarily affects the - system. a. neurologic b. muscular c. gastrointestinal d. endocrine - ANS ✓neurologic The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins: a. prior to conception. b. during the last trimester. c. at birth. d. all through pregnancy. - ANS ✓a. prior to conception. Which of the following are characteristics of Marfan syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
a. It is a single-gene disorder. b. It involves alterations in connective tissue. c. It leads to skeletal and joint deformities. d. It leads to short stocky build. e. It results in dangerous cardiovascular disorders. - ANS ✓a. It is a single- gene disorder. b. It involves alterations in connective tissue. c. It leads to skeletal and joint deformities. e. It results in dangerous cardiovascular disorders. Which of the following would the nurse instruct the pregnant woman to avoid as teratogens? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. X-rays c. Thalidomide d. Cephalosporin antibiotics e. Zika virus - ANS ✓a. Alcohol c. Thalidomide e. Zika virus Which vessel normally demonstrates the most rapid blood flow? a. An arteriole b. A capillary c. A venule d. The vena cava - ANS ✓d. vena cava
What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved? a.Resistance doubles. b.Resistance decreases by a factor of 16. c. Resistance decreases by half. d. Resistance increases by a factor of 16. - ANS ✓d. Resistance increases by a factor of 16. Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction to the lower extremities include: a. edema. b. intermittent claudication. c. decreased pressure proximal to the obstruction. d. distal hyperemia. - ANS ✓b. intermittent claudication. Peripheral edema is a result of: a. arterial insufficiency. b. venous thrombosis. c. hypertension. d. atherosclerosis. - ANS ✓b. venous thrombosis The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P) in a vessel can be expressed by which equation? a. Q= p/R b. Q= R/P
c. R = PQ d. P = Q/R - ANS ✓a. Q= p/R Risk factors for atherosclerosis include a. female gender. b. hyperlipidemia. c. High-protein diet d. Low-fiber diet - ANS ✓b. hyperlipidemia Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction? a. Pain b. Purpura c. Pallor d. Pulselessness - ANS ✓b. Purpura The goal of long-term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to: a. relieve edema. b. prevent clot dislodgement. c. dissolve the thrombus. d. prevent further clot formation. - ANS ✓d. prevent further clot formation. Which condition enhances lymphatic flow? a. Increased tissue hydrostatic pressure b. Increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure
b. hypertensive crisis. c. extremity necrosis. d. pulmonary embolus. - ANS ✓d. pulmonary embolus. Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation? a. Thrombocytopenia b. Vascular trauma c. Stasis of blood flow d. Circulatory shock - ANS ✓a. Thrombocytopenia Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome? a. Peripheral edema b. Absent peripheral pulses c. Redness and swelling d. Atrophy of distal tissues - ANS ✓b. Absent of peripheral pulses Velocity of blood flow is measured in: a. centimeters per second. b. millimeters per minute. c. yards per hour. d. kilometers per minute. - ANS ✓a. centimeters per second When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called:
a. autoregulation. b. edema. c. hyperemia. d. hypoxia. - ANS ✓c. hyperemia The pain characteristics of chronic venous insufficiency include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Aching and cramping in the affected area b. Relief with elevation to the area c. Relief with ambulation if pain is in the legs d. Burning and prickling in the affected area e. Relief with massage to the area - ANS ✓a. Aching and cramping in the affected area b. Relief with elevation to the area c. Relief with ambulation if pain is in the legs Which are the primary functions of the circulatory system? (Select all that apply.) a. Transport oxygen b.Transport nutrients c. Remove metabolic waste d. Reabsorb leaking fluid e. Return leukocytes to the circulation - ANS ✓a. Transport oxygen b. Transport nutrients c. Remove metabolic waste
