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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD. NU 325 Exam 1 – Health Assessment. University of South Alabama. 50 high-yield questions mirroring the actual course exam. Clear, accurate, student-friendly explanations. No fluff. Perfect for exam prep. NU 325 exam 1, University of South Alabama health assessment, NU 325 health assessment practice, USA nursing exam, NU 325 50 questions, Health assessment exam prep, NU 325 2026, NU 325 study guide, NU 325 test bank, Health assessment Q&A, NU 325 rationales, NU 325 practice test, South Alabama nursing exam, NU 325 review, Health assessment high-yield topics, NU 325 preparation
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(Health Assessment)
NU 325 Exam 1 Health Assessment including 50 high-yield
questions written to mirror actual course exam.
Covers core Health Assessment Concepts with clear,
accurate, and student-friendly explanations. Perfect
for mastering high-priority topics and boosting exam
confidence.
1. A 54-year-old woman tells the nurse, “I’ve had crushing chest pain for 30 minutes and feel like I might die.” The nurse immediately applies oxygen, calls the rapid response team, and attaches the patient to a cardiac monitor. How should this problem be classified in priority setting? A. First-level priority B. Second-level priority C. Third-level priority D. Collaborative problem
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crushing chest pain with suspected myocardial ischemia threatens airway, breathing, and circulation and is therefore a first-level priority in the Planning step of the nursing process. It requires immediate intervention to preserve life. Second-level priorities (B) include acute pain without life threat, abnormal labs, or mental status changes. Third-level priorities (C) involve knowledge or coping needs. Collaborative problems (D) are physiologic complications nurses monitor but manage with other disciplines.
2. A nurse documents, “Client states, ‘My ear is killing me and I’ve been up all night.’” This statement is an example of which type of data? A. Objective data collected during inspection B. Objective data collected during auscultation C. Subjective data collected during the interview D. Laboratory diagnostic data
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client’s own words about pain and sleep loss are subjective data gathered during the Assessment step, specifically in the health history interview. Objective data (A, B) are obtained through physical exam techniques—inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Lab results (D) are separate objective findings. Jarvis
coping (B) are third-level issues. Constipation risk (D) is also third-level and non- urgent according to Jarvis’s prioritization framework.
5. A nurse asks, “Tell me more about the shortness of breath you’ve been having” and then leans forward, nodding slowly as the patient speaks. Which interviewing response is the nurse using? A. Confrontation B. Facilitation C. Interpretation D. Summary
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leaning forward, nodding, and using phrases like “tell me more” are facilitation , an examiner response that encourages the patient to continue the narrative during the Assessment interview. Confrontation (A) focuses attention on a specific observed behavior. Interpretation (C) links events or implies causes. Summary (D) condenses information at the end of a segment. Jarvis describes facilitation as a minimal cue that shows interest without directing the story.
6. During an interview the nurse says, “I know you’re worried, but everything will be fine.” Which interviewing trap is this? A. Giving unwanted advice B. Using professional jargon C. Providing false reassurance D. Using biased questions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Saying “everything will be fine” is false reassurance , a trap that blocks further exploration and fails the Assessment step by minimizing patient concerns. Giving
unwanted advice (A) occurs when the nurse tells the patient what to do. Professional jargon (B) uses complex medical terms. Biased questions (D) lead the client toward a particular answer. Jarvis emphasizes avoiding false reassurance because it destroys trust and is not evidence-based.
7. A nurse asks a client, “You don’t smoke, do you?” The patient nods and says, “Not really.” This question is an example of which interviewing error? A. Open-ended questioning B. Leading or biased question C. Effective clarification D. Confrontation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: “You don’t smoke, do you?” is a leading/biased question , which implies that not smoking is the desirable response and may cause underreporting of behavior. This violates Jarvis’s guidance for neutral, nonjudgmental interviewing and weakens the Assessment database. Open-ended questions (A) invite broad responses. Clarification (C) explores ambiguous information. Confrontation (D) points out discrepancies between words and behavior.
8. A client says, “I’m terrified about this biopsy.” The nurse responds, “This must be very hard for you—you seem really worried.” Which therapeutic response is being used? A. Reflection B. Empathy C. Explanation D. Silence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stating “your doctor knows best” is using authority , implying that the provider’s viewpoint is superior and discouraging patient participation in the Planning phase. Distancing (B) uses impersonal terms like “the breast.” Avoidance language (C) uses euphemisms for difficult topics. Talking too much (D) limits patient input. Jarvis emphasizes that health decisions should be collaborative, not authoritarian.
11. A patient reports “pressure in my face and can’t breathe through my nose.” The nurse notes tender frontal sinuses on palpation and thick green nasal discharge. How should these latter findings be classified? A. Subjective symptoms B. Objective signs C. Functional data D. Diagnostic hypotheses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tenderness and thick discharge are objective signs , collected during Inspection and Palpation within the Assessment step. The client’s sensation of “pressure” is subjective (A). Functional data (C) relate to activities of daily living. Diagnostic hypotheses (D) occur later during Diagnosis when clinical findings are interpreted.
12. A nurse is obtaining a complete health history from a newly admitted client. Which statement is the best way to record the reason for seeking care? A. Chest pain B. “Chest pain for 2 hours that started while mowing the lawn.” C. Complains of chest pain. D. Possible myocardial infarction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jarvis instructs nurses to record the reason for seeking care in the patient’s own words, in quotation marks, with a time frame—option B. This supports accurate Assessment and avoids premature diagnosis. A and C lack the patient’s voice and time frame. D is an interpretation/medical diagnosis and not an appropriate chief- complaint statement.
13. During a home visit, an older adult says, “I can’t keep up the house like I used to.” Which question best assesses functional status? A. “Why do you feel that way?” B. “What medications are you taking?” C. “Can you tell me how you manage bathing, dressing, and cooking?” D. “Do you live alone?”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Asking about activities of daily living —bathing, dressing, cooking—assesses functional status , a key part of the Assessment step and functional assessment in Jarvis. “Why” questions (A) can sound blaming and are a trap. Medication review (B) is important but not functional. Living arrangement (D) gives context but not self-care ability.
14. A nurse evaluates several clients. Which situation reflects a second-level priority problem? A. Unresponsive client with no palpable pulse B. Client with acute confusion and new-onset slurred speech C. Client requesting teaching about low-sodium diet D. Client expressing frustration about family support
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For toddlers, Jarvis recommends allowing the child to remain in the caregiver’s lap and starting the Assessment with non-threatening inspection from a distance, moving gradually closer. Invasive procedures first (A) heighten fear. Removing the caregiver (B) increases distress. Forcing the child onto the table (D) may provoke resistance and limit cooperation.
17. A nurse is about to assess a client with suspected pneumonia. To evaluate lung density and detect areas of consolidation, which assessment technique should be emphasized? A. Inspection B. Palpation C. Percussion D. Auscultation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Percussion helps assess underlying structures’ density—air, fluid, or solid—by producing characteristic sounds, useful for detecting lung consolidation in the Assessment step. Jarvis notes normal lungs are resonant; dullness suggests increased density. Inspection (A) evaluates effort and symmetry; palpation (B) assesses tenderness or fremitus; auscultation (D) evaluates breath sounds but not density alone.
18. While percussing the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, the nurse expects to hear which percussion note over the liver? A. Resonant B. Hyperresonant C. Tympany D. Dull
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The liver is a relatively dense organ, so dullness is the expected percussion note during the Assessment of abdominal organs, per Jarvis. Resonant (A) sounds occur over normal lung tissue. Hyperresonant (B) suggests excessive air, as in emphysema. Tympany (C) is heard over air-filled viscera like the stomach or intestines.
19. A nurse is preparing to listen to a client’s bowel sounds. Which stethoscope component and technique should be used? A. Bell pressed lightly on the abdomen B. Bell pressed firmly on the abdomen C. Diaphragm pressed lightly on the abdomen D. Diaphragm pressed firmly on the abdomen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The diaphragm is best for high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds; it should be applied lightly to avoid creating extra noise, as Jarvis describes in the Assessment chapter. The bell (A, B) is used for low-pitched sounds such as murmurs. Pressing too firmly (D) may cause discomfort and distort sounds.
20. A nurse is preparing to examine a client with active coughing and thick sputum production. Which infection-control action is most appropriate? A. Wear gloves only B. Wear gown and gloves only C. Wear mask, eye protection, and perform hand hygiene D. No PPE needed if the nurse is not touching the client
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Contact with stool or body fluids requires gloves and gown to protect skin and clothing, per Standard Precautions and contact-precaution principles. C. diff is spread via spores on surfaces, not airborne, so N95 (D) is unnecessary. Gloves alone (A) do not protect clothing. Mask/eye protection only (C) is insufficient for contact with potentially contaminated surfaces.
23. A nurse notes that a hospitalized client has a water pitcher, personal items, and tissues scattered on the floor. What is the nurse’s best action to reduce risk of healthcare-associated injury and infection? A. Document the finding B. Ask housekeeping to remove the items later C. Remove hazards from the floor and provide a clean, organized environment D. Tell the client to keep items off the floor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining a clean, hazard-free environment is part of safe Implementation and reduces falls and environmental contamination—key to preventing healthcare- associated infections per Jarvis. Documentation alone (A) does not correct the hazard. Delaying removal (B) prolongs risk. Simply instructing the client (D) ignores functional limitations and shared responsibility for safety.
24. A nurse is interviewing a client who speaks limited English with the help of a professional interpreter. Which action is appropriate? A. Look at and speak directly to the interpreter B. Ask the interpreter to summarize instead of translating word for word C. Face the client and use short, simple sentences D. Use the client’s family member as the interpreter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Jarvis emphasizes speaking directly to the client , using simple sentences and pausing for interpretation to maintain rapport and accurate Assessment. Focusing on the interpreter (A) marginalizes the client. Asking for summaries (B) risks omitting important details. Family members (D) may filter or distort information and compromise confidentiality.
25. During an interview a client makes sexually suggestive comments to the nurse and touches the nurse’s arm repeatedly. Which response is most appropriate? A. Ignore the behavior and continue the interview B. Laugh and change the subject C. Say, “Your comments make me uncomfortable; please stop” D. End the interview immediately without explanation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Jarvis recommends setting clear professional boundaries by calmly stating discomfort and asking the client to stop. This protects the therapeutic relationship and allows the Assessment to continue safely. Ignoring (A) or joking (B) condones the behavior. Abruptly leaving (D) without explanation may escalate frustration and compromise care; leaving is appropriate only if the behavior persists after limits are set.
26. A nurse says, “The breast has a lump in it” rather than “your breast has a lump.” This is an example of which interviewing trap? A. Distancing B. Avoidance language C. Using professional jargon D. Talking too much
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For abdominal assessment Jarvis recommends inspection → auscultation → percussion → palpation to avoid altering bowel sounds by palpation or percussion first. Thus, auscultation (C) is next. Percussion (A) and palpation (B, D) follow later. This sequencing is a key nuance of the Assessment technique.
29. A school-age child with a fever repeatedly scratches his head. On inspection the nurse sees small white oval structures attached to hair shafts. Which statement best describes these findings? A. Symptom of scalp itching B. Objective sign consistent with pediculosis capitis C. Functional limitation D. Cultural hair adornments
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Visible white nits attached to hair are objective signs of head lice, obtained through inspection during the Assessment. The child’s itch is a symptom (A). Functional limits (C) involve ADLs. Cultural adornments (D) do not cause pruritus or have this characteristic appearance. Jarvis emphasizes accurate distinction between signs and symptoms.
30. A nurse wants to explore more about a client’s vague comment, “I just don’t feel right lately.” Which response uses clarification appropriately? A. “Why do you feel that way?” B. “You’re saying you’re depressed, right?” C. “Can you tell me what you mean by ‘don’t feel right’?” D. “Everyone feels bad sometimes.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clarification asks the patient to elaborate or define an ambiguous statement— “What do you mean by…?”—to refine the Assessment database. “Why” (A) can sound blaming. B is an interpretation that may be inaccurate. D minimizes the concern and is nontherapeutic.
31. A nurse caring for an older adult with new confusion and fever prioritizes which action first? A. Provide family teaching about delirium B. Notify the provider and obtain orders for cultures C. Ask about the patient’s usual sleep pattern D. Assess readiness to learn about fall prevention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute confusion with fever is a second-level priority suggesting infection; prompt diagnostic work-up and treatment fall under Implementation. Teaching (A, D) and non-urgent history (C) are third-level issues addressed after acute physiologic problems are stabilized, per Jarvis’s priority framework.
32. Which of the following is the best example of objective data obtained during auscultation? A. Client states, “My heart is racing.” B. Nurse hears irregular heart rhythm at 110 beats per minute. C. Client reports palpitations after climbing stairs. D. Client rates chest pain as 8/10.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An irregular rhythm heard at 110 bpm is objective data gathered through auscultation in the Assessment step. A, C, and D are subjective reports—what the
is the current chief complaint in the patient’s words. Family history (D) focuses on illnesses in relatives.
35. A nurse is percussing a child’s chest and hears a loud, low-pitched booming sound over most of the lung fields. How should this be interpreted? A. Normal resonant sound for a child’s lungs B. Hyperresonant sound that is normal in a child C. Dull sound indicating consolidation D. Tympany indicating pneumothorax
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jarvis notes that hyperresonance may be normal over a child’s lungs due to increased air content. In adults, hyperresonance would indicate pathology such as emphysema. Resonance (A) is typical in adults. Dullness (C) suggests increased density. Tympany (D) is musical, high-pitched, and normally heard over the stomach, not lungs.
36. Which nurse behavior during an interview most clearly violates Jarvis’s recommendations for nonverbal communication? A. Sitting at eye level with the client B. Frequently checking the time on a watch C. Leaning slightly forward D. Maintaining an open posture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Repeatedly checking a watch suggests impatience and distracts from the patient, undermining rapport in the Assessment interview. Jarvis lists this as a negative nonverbal behavior. Eye-level seating (A), leaning forward (C), and open posture (D) are positive cues that convey interest and attentiveness.
37. A nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who is immunosuppressed. Which hand-hygiene practice best reflects evidence-based care? A. Use alcohol-based hand rub before and after patient contact unless hands are visibly soiled B. Use plain water rinses between tasks C. Wear gloves continuously to avoid washing hands D. Only wash hands at the beginning and end of shift
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Standard Precautions require hand hygiene before and after patient contact , with alcohol rubs acceptable unless hands are visibly soiled, in which case soap and water are required. This is crucial for immunosuppressed clients and part of safe Implementation. Plain water (B) is ineffective. Gloves (C) do not replace hand hygiene. A single wash per shift (D) is unsafe and contradicts Jarvis and CDC guidance.
38. A nurse tells a client, “If I were you, I’d stop taking that herbal supplement immediately.” This statement is an example of which interviewing trap? A. Providing false reassurance B. Giving unwanted advice C. Using avoidance language D. Using professional jargon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: “If I were you…” reflects unwanted advice , shifting decision-making away from the patient and undermining autonomy during the Assessment interview. False reassurance (A) minimizes concerns. Avoidance language (C) uses vague euphemisms. Jargon (D) uses complex medical terms. Jarvis recommends instead helping patients weigh pros and cons and make their own informed choices.
