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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD. NUR 265 Exam 1 with 3 unique versions – Medical-Surgical Nursing. Galen College of Nursing. 150 tested questions (50 per exam) with verified answers and rationales. NCLEX-aligned, clinically-focused scenarios. 100% pass guarantee. NUR 265 exam 1, Galen College of Nursing Med-Surg, NUR 265 3 versions, Medical-surgical nursing exam 1, NUR 265 tested questions, NUR 265 rationales, NUR 265 2026, Galen NUR 265, NUR 265 practice test, NUR 265 study guide, Med-Surg NCLEX-style, NUR 265 verified answers, NUR 265 exam pack version A B C, Galen nursing exam 1, NUR 265 critical thinking, Med-Surg board review
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This Exam Features:
Complete NUR 265 Exam 1 (3-Version Exam Set) for
Galen College of Nursing, each containing 50
high-yield questions that mirror real Med-Surg
exam style. Includes clinically-focused scenarios,
NCLEX-aligned items, and verified answers to
strengthen critical-thinking and boost exam readiness.
Table of Contents
NUR 265 Exam 1 Set 1
proteinuria should take which of the following actions?
A) Administer furosemide B) Administer lisinopril C) Restrict fluids D) Increase protein intake
Correct Answer: B) Administer lisinopril
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril reduce proteinuria by lowering intraglomerular pressure, which slows kidney damage progression. They are standard therapy in nephrotic syndrome to decrease urinary protein loss.
clients requires priority follow-up with the primary health care provider?
A) Collect a specimen for gentamicin peak and trough levels B) Increase intravenous fluids C) Administer antihypertensive medication D) Notify the dietitian
Correct Answer: A) Collect a specimen for gentamicin peak and trough levels
Rationale: Monitoring gentamicin peak and trough levels assesses potential nephrotoxicity and guides dose adjustments to prevent further renal damage.
experiencing increased rate and depth of respirations. After raising the head of the bed, what should the nurse do next?
A) Order a chest x-ray B) Obtain a blood specimen for arterial blood gases (ABGs) C) Administer oxygen therapy D) Encourage deep breathing exercises
Correct Answer: B) Obtain a blood specimen for arterial blood gases (ABGs)
Rationale: Deep and rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) indicate metabolic acidosis common in CKD. ABGs will confirm acidosis and guide treatment.
further teaching for a client with CKD on hemodialysis 3 times weekly?
A) "I try and limit my intake of dietary sodium to 5 grams per day." B) "I avoid adding salt to my food." C) "I read labels on processed foods for sodium content." D) "I avoid salt substitutes containing potassium."
Correct Answer: A) "I try and limit my intake of dietary sodium to 5 grams per day."
Rationale: Sodium intake should be restricted to 2-4 grams per day in hemodialysis to help manage hypertension and fluid balance.
a client in late-stage CKD?
A) "If I develop any muscle weakness or tremors, I should report it to my doctor." B) "I can skip dialysis if I feel well." C) "I do not need to worry about my potassium intake." D) "I should increase my protein intake significantly."
Correct Answer: A) "If I develop any muscle weakness or tremors, I should report it to my doctor."
Rationale: Muscle weakness and tremors may indicate electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia post-dialysis, needing medical evaluation.
yesterday develops which of the following?
B) Repositioning the client during dialysis to improve dialysate flow C) Placing client flat in bed during dialysis D) Ignoring air bubbles in tubing
Correct Answer: B) Repositioning the client during dialysis to improve dialysate flow
Rationale: Changing client position assists gravity-dependent flow of dialysate and prevents complications, unlike warming solutions improperly or flat positioning.
pancreatitis?
A) Severe epigastric and back pain aggravated by supine position B) Lower right quadrant abdominal pain C) Sharp chest pain radiating to left arm D) Jaundice without pain
Correct Answer: A) Severe epigastric and back pain aggravated by supine position
Rationale: Acute pancreatitis manifests as constant severe epigastric pain often radiating to the back and worsened when supine.
A) WBC count of 15,000/mm³
B) Decreased serum amylase C) Normal sedimentation rate D) Decreased blood glucose
Correct Answer: A) WBC count of 15,000/mm³
Rationale: Acute pancreatitis causes systemic inflammation, resulting in elevated WBC count, amylase, lipase, and sometimes hyperglycemia.
with acute pancreatitis who has which vital signs?
A) Pulse 126, BP 98/54 mm Hg B) Pulse 80, BP 130/85 mm Hg C) Pulse 100, BP 120/70 mm Hg D) Pulse 60, BP 110/70 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A) Pulse 126, BP 98/54 mm Hg
Rationale: Tachycardia and hypotension in acute pancreatitis suggest hypovolemia or hemorrhagic pancreatitis requiring immediate assessment.
indicates correct understanding?
A) "I will avoid eating foods that are high in fat." B) "I should increase my sugar intake." C) "I will eat more red meat for energy."
Correct Answer: A) "I should avoid constipation to decrease my risk of bleeding."
Rationale: Avoiding constipation reduces straining and risk of esophageal variceal rupture in cirrhosis patients.
client should be seen first?
A) 55-year-old with cirrhosis who is tachypneic B) Client with stable hypertension C) Post-op appendectomy with clear lung sounds D) Client 2 days post-MI with normal vitals
Correct Answer: A) 55-year-old with cirrhosis who is tachypneic
Rationale: Tachypnea in cirrhosis may indicate hypoxia, fluid overload, or infection requiring urgent assessment.
expected therapeutic effect?
A) Decreased serum ammonia level B) Increased blood pressure C) Increased liver enzymes D) Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A) Decreased serum ammonia level
Rationale: Lactulose lowers ammonia levels by trapping ammonia in the colon, preventing hepatic encephalopathy progression.
A) Client returned from hemodialysis reporting pain radiating down to the left arm B) Client with stable vital signs post-cholecystectomy C) Client with diabetes reporting thirst D) Client reporting mild headache
Correct Answer: A) Client returned from hemodialysis reporting pain radiating down to the left arm
Rationale: Radiating left arm pain is a classic sign of myocardial infarction, requiring immediate evaluation.
should be taken first?
A) Administer oxygen therapy via nasal cannula B) Obtain blood glucose C) Start intravenous fluids D) Place client in trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: A) Administer oxygen therapy via nasal cannula
drip who exhibits:
A) Dysarthria (difficulty speaking) B) Mild headache C) Occasional palpitations D) Urinary retention
Correct Answer: A) Dysarthria (difficulty speaking)
Rationale: Dysarthria can indicate amiodarone-induced neurotoxicity, necessitating immediate provider notification.
concentration of 50 mg/ 250 mL D 5 W weighs 187 lbs. The IV pump is set at 3 mL/hr. What action should the nurse take?
A) Increase the infusion rate to 6 mL/hr B) Decrease the infusion rate to 1 mL/hr C) Maintain current rate D) Stop the infusion
Correct Answer: A) Increase the infusion rate to 6 mL/hr
Rationale: Dimensional analysis shows correct rate is 6 mL/hr to deliver 20 mcg/min with given concentration.
plasminogen activator (tPA) after an MI. Which finding requires immediate provider notification?
A) Oozing of blood at IV insertion site B) Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg C) Pulse 80 bpm D) Respiratory rate 16/min
Correct Answer: A) Oozing of blood at IV insertion site
Rationale: Bleeding at IV site indicates excessive anticoagulation or bleeding risk with tPA therapy, necessitating urgent assessment.
Correct Answer: a) Electrocardiogram (ECG) revealing ST elevations
Rationale: ST elevations on ECG indicate myocardial injury and are consistent with a STEMI (ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction), confirming acute myocardial infarction. STEMI occurs when a coronary artery is completely occluded, causing transmural ischemia reflected as ST elevation on the ECG.
Rationale: Using dimensional analysis:
Correct Answer: a) Prothrombin time (PT) 20 seconds
Rationale: An elevated PT indicates a coagulation disorder or anticoagulation, increasing the risk for bleeding during invasive procedures such as catheterization and angioplasty. It requires immediate communication to ensure corrective interventions before the procedure.
a) “This test will help determine how much plaque has developed in my coronary arteries.” b) “This will measure my heart’s electrical activity.” c) “It will help check the rhythm of my heart.” d) “It will only assess my heart valves.”
Correct Answer: a) “This test will help determine how much plaque has developed in my coronary arteries.”
Rationale: Cardiac catheterization uses contrast dye and fluoroscopy to visualize the coronary arteries, assessing the extent of atherosclerotic plaque and blockages, which guides treatment decisions.
Correct Answer: a) Assess for cardiac tamponade
Rationale: Muffled heart sounds post-CABG may indicate pericardial effusion or cardiac tamponade, which is a medical emergency. Prompt assessment and intervention are critical to prevent hemodynamic collapse.
Correct Answer: a) Jugular vein distention with clear lung sounds
Rationale: Cardiac tamponade causes impaired ventricular filling, increasing venous pressure leading to jugular venous distention (JVD) without pulmonary congestion (clear lungs), heart sounds may also be muffled.
Correct Answer: a) Potential fluid overload
Rationale: Clients with heart failure are at risk of fluid overload, and rapid infusion of isotonic fluids can exacerbate pulmonary edema and heart failure symptoms.
Correct Answer: a) Development of muffled heart sounds and hypotension
Rationale: Muffled heart sounds and hypotension may indicate progression to cardiac tamponade, a serious complication requiring immediate evaluation.
a) Daily use of albuterol inhaler for asthma
