Docsity
Docsity
Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips
Sell on Docsity
Sell on Docsity
Docsity AI
Docsity AI
Log inSign up

Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Find documents

Prepare for your exams with the study notes shared by other students like you on Docsity

Search for your university

Find the specific documents for your university's exams

Docsity AINEW

Summarize your documents, ask them questions, convert them into quizzes and concept maps

Explore questions

Clear up your doubts by reading the answers to questions asked by your fellow students

Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Share documents
download point icon20 Points

For each uploaded document

Answer questions
download point icon5 Points

For each given answer (max 1 per day)

All the ways to get free points
Get points immediately

Choose a premium plan with all the points you need

Study Opportunities

Choose your next study program

Get in touch with the best universities in the world. Search through thousands of universities and official partners

Community

Ask the community

Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts

Free resources

Our save-the-student-ebooks!

Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors

NUR 2755 Final Exam (Latest Spring 2026 / 2027): Multidimensional Care IV /MDC 4 Rasmussen, Exams of Nursing

Rasmussen College - FloridaNursing

NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Final Exam (Latest Spring 2026 / 2027): Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 Rasmussen

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 05/24/2026

Sweet_Study.
Sweet_Study. 🇺🇸

5

(2)

377 documents

1 / 15

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Final Exam (Latest Spring 2026 / 2027):
Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 Rasmussen
1. What is the priority assessment for a nurse performing triage in the Emergency
Department?
a. A. Level of consciousness
b. B. ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)
c. C. Pain level
d. D. Mechanism of injury
2. Which triage tag color is assigned to a patient who is an immediate threat to life (Class I)?
a. A. Red
b. B. Yellow
c. C. Green
d. D. Black
3. A patient who can wait a short time for care (Class II) is assigned which tag color?
a. A. Red
b. B. Yellow
c. C. Green
d. D. Black
4. In a mass casualty, the "walking wounded" are assigned which triage category?
a. A. Class I
b. B. Class II
c. C. Class III (Green)
d. D. Class IV
5. Which organization is a national network of local volunteers organized to improve
community health and safety?
a. A. DMAT
b. B. Medical Reserve Corps (MRC)
c. C. FEMA
d. D. Red Cross
6. What is a key characteristic of Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMAT)?
a. A. They only operate in their home state.
b. B. They are unpaid volunteers.
c. C. Their licenses are valid in all 50 states.
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff

Partial preview of the text

Download NUR 2755 Final Exam (Latest Spring 2026 / 2027): Multidimensional Care IV /MDC 4 Rasmussen and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NUR2755 / NUR 2755 Final Exam (Latest Spring 2026 / 202 7 ):

Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 Rasmussen

  1. What is the priority assessment for a nurse performing triage in the Emergency Department? a. A. Level of consciousness b. B. ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) c. C. Pain level d. D. Mechanism of injury
  2. Which triage tag color is assigned to a patient who is an immediate threat to life (Class I)? a. A. Red b. B. Yellow c. C. Green d. D. Black
  3. A patient who can wait a short time for care (Class II) is assigned which tag color? a. A. Red b. B. Yellow c. C. Green d. D. Black
  4. In a mass casualty, the "walking wounded" are assigned which triage category? a. A. Class I b. B. Class II c. C. Class III (Green) d. D. Class IV
  5. Which organization is a national network of local volunteers organized to improve community health and safety? a. A. DMAT b. B. Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) c. C. FEMA d. D. Red Cross
  6. What is a key characteristic of Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMAT)? a. A. They only operate in their home state. b. B. They are unpaid volunteers. c. C. Their licenses are valid in all 50 states.

d. D. They only respond to internal disasters.

  1. What is the primary difference between heat exhaustion and heat stroke? a. A. Heat exhaustion has a higher temperature. b. B. Heat stroke involves body temperatures above 104°F and altered mental status. c. C. Heat exhaustion causes dry skin. d. D. Heat stroke is treated only with oral fluids.
  2. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with heat stroke? a. A. Administer aspirin b. B. Check blood glucose c. C. Move the patient out of the sun and begin rapid cooling. d. D. Administer a high-protein snack
  3. Why is shivering dangerous during the treatment of heat stroke? a. A. It increases core body temperature. b. B. It causes skin breakdown. c. C. It lowers blood pressure. d. D. It leads to fluid overload.
  4. Which medication is administered to a patient with heat stroke if they begin to shiver? a. A. Ibuprofen b. B. Acetaminophen c. C. Benzodiazepines d. D. Epinephrine
  5. In the treatment of frostbite, what is the recommended method for rewarming the skin? a. A. Rubbing the hands together vigorously b. B. A warm-water bath for 15 to 30 minutes c. C. Using a heating pad on high d. D. Exposure to a space heater
  6. Which medication can be used in serious frostbite cases within 24 hours to restore blood flow? a. A. Heparin b. B. Warfarin c. C. TPA (Thrombolytic) d. D. Vitamin K
  7. What does 2nd-degree frostbite look like? a. A. Numbness and waxy appearance only b. B. Redness and milky/clear fluid-filled blisters

b. B. Push the lever c. C. Point the nozzle d. D. Press the trigger

  1. What is the most common symptom of a Pulmonary Embolism (PE)? a. A. Fever b. B. Sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain c. C. Productive cough d. D. Bradycardia
  2. What is the gold standard diagnostic test for a PE? a. A. Chest X-ray b. B. EKG c. C. CT pulmonary angiography (CT-PA) d. D. Ultrasound
  3. A patient with a PE is receiving IV Heparin. What is the therapeutic lab to monitor? a. A. PT b. B. INR c. C. PTT (aPTT) d. D. Platelets
  4. If a patient on Heparin has a PTT of 25 seconds (normal is 30-45), what is the nursing action? a. A. Increase the heparin rate (it is sub-therapeutic). b. B. Decrease the heparin rate. c. C. Stop the infusion. d. D. Administer Vitamin K.
  5. What surgical device is used for patients with recurrent PEs who cannot take anticoagulants? a. A. Pacemaker b. B. Inferior Vena Cava (IVC) Filter c. C. Stent d. D. Chest tube
  6. What is the defining feature of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)? a. A. Low CO b. B. Refractory hypoxemia (low oxygen even with 100% O2 administration) c. C. Hypertension d. D. Clear lung sounds
  1. What is the earliest sign of respiratory distress/ARDS? a. A. Cyanosis b. B. Increased respiratory rate (Tachypnea) c. C. Stupor d. D. Bradycardia
  2. Which position improves perfusion in a patient with ARDS? a. A. Prone b. B. Supine c. C. Left lateral d. D. Lithotomy
  3. What is the classic sign of a flail chest? a. A. Tracheal deviation b. B. Paradoxical chest movement (sucking inward on inspiration) c. C. Crepitus d. D. Bradycardia
  4. What finding is expected when auscultating a patient with a pneumothorax? a. A. Crackles b. B. Wheezing c. C. Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side d. D. Stridor
  5. Where is a needle thoracostomy performed to relieve a tension pneumothorax? a. A. 5th intercostal space b. B. 2nd intercostal midclavicular space c. C. 1st intercostal space d. D. Over the sternum
  6. A ventilator "High Pressure Alarm" is most likely caused by: a. A. A leak in the circuit b. B. Secretions/mucus plug or the patient biting the tube c. C. Disconnection of the tube d. D. Spontaneous breathing
  7. What is the first nursing action when a ventilator alarm sounds and the cause cannot be determined? a. A. Turn off the alarm b. B. Call the doctor c. C. Manually ventilate the patient with a resuscitation (Ambu) bag.

c. C. The chest stops moving entirely. d. D. Rapid, shallow breathing.

  1. What is the first sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? a. A. Cushing’s triad b. B. Deteriorating Level of Consciousness (restlessness/irritability) c. C. Dilated pupils d. D. Posturing
  2. What are the components of Cushing’s Triad (a late sign of ICP)? a. A. Tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea b. B. Severe HTN (widened pulse pressure), bradycardia, and irregular respirations. c. C. Fever, stiff neck, headache d. D. Hypotension, bradycardia, skin mottling
  3. Which medication is commonly used to reduce ICP? a. A. Heparin b. B. Mannitol c. C. Lorazepam d. D. Warfarin
  4. An Ischemic stroke is caused by: a. A. A burst blood vessel b. B. A blocked artery (clot or debris) c. C. Head trauma d. D. Low blood sugar
  5. What is the "gold standard" IV treatment for ischemic stroke if given within 3-4.5 hours? a. A. Heparin b. B. Alteplase (tPA) c. C. Aspirin d. D. Warfarin
  6. What is the maximum dose for tPA? a. A. 50 mg b. B. 100 mg c. C. 90 mg d. D. 10 mg
  7. A patient with a right-sided stroke will likely exhibit: a. A. Aphasia b. B. Impulsiveness and poor judgment

c. C. Dyslexia d. D. Intellectual impairment

  1. A patient with a left-sided stroke will likely exhibit: a. A. Aphasia and problems with reading/vision b. B. Euphoria c. C. Confabulation d. D. Disorientation to person
  2. What is homonymous hemianopsia? a. A. Total blindness b. B. Seeing only one side (right or left) of the visual world in each eye. c. C. Double vision d. D. Sensitivity to light
  3. How should a nurse help a patient with homonymous hemianopsia? a. A. Approach from the blind side b. B. Place all items on the blind side c. C. Teach the patient to scan the environment by turning their head. d. D. Patch the good eye
  4. What is the priority during a tonic-clonic seizure? a. A. Restrain the patient b. B. Place a tongue blade in the mouth c. C. Ensure safety, turn to the side, and protect the head. d. D. Administer oral fluids
  5. What is the drug of choice for status epilepticus? a. A. IV Lorazepam (Ativan) b. B. Oral Phenytoin c. C. Acetaminophen d. D. Insulin
  6. What is the therapeutic range for Phenytoin (Dilantin)? a. A. 5-10 mcg/ml b. B. 10-20 mcg/ml c. C. 20-30 mcg/ml d. D. 50-100 mcg/ml
  7. What is a common side effect of long-term Phenytoin use? a. A. Hair loss b. B. Gingival (gum) hyperplasia

c. C. Permanent memory loss d. D. High blood sugar

  1. What is a common history finding in patients with Guillain-Barré? a. A. Recent broken bone b. B. Recent viral infection (Flu, Epstein-Barr, Zika). c. C. History of diabetes d. D. Excessive caffeine intake
  2. The "tensilon test" (Edrophonium) is used to diagnose: a. A. Parkinson’s b. B. Alzheimer’s c. C. Myasthenia Gravis d. D. Multiple Sclerosis
  3. What are the primary symptoms of Parkinson’s disease? a. A. High fever and rash b. B. Tremors, muscle rigidity, and bradykinesia. c. C. Muscle wasting and vision loss d. D. Seizures and vomiting
  4. To help a Parkinson’s patient with "freezing" gait, the nurse should suggest: a. A. Using a wheelchair only b. B. Rocking back and forth to initiate movement. c. C. Looking at their feet while walking d. D. Running
  5. What is "Decerebrate" posturing? a. A. Flexion toward the core b. B. Rigid extension of all four extremities with arched back (indicates brainstem damage). c. C. Limpness d. D. Moving to localized pain
  6. What is "Decorticate" posturing? a. A. Arms flexed inward like "C"s toward the cord (indicates cervical/hemisphere damage). b. B. Arms extended outward like "e"s. c. C. Flaccid paralysis. d. D. Normal movement.
  7. What should a patient avoid before an EEG?

a. A. Food b. B. Water c. C. Caffeine d. D. Sleep

  1. A patient with a halo device should never: a. A. Drink with a straw b. B. Drive a motor vehicle c. C. Wear wool d. D. Wash their skin
  2. What is the first sign of spinal shock? a. A. High blood pressure b. B. Flaccid paralysis and loss of reflexes. c. C. Tachycardia d. D. Increased sweating
  3. The Parkland Formula is used to calculate: a. A. Kidney function b. B. Fluid resuscitation volume for the first 24 hours after a burn. c. C. Caloric needs d. D. Blood pressure
  4. What is the Parkland Formula? a. A. 4ml x %BSA x Weight (kg) b. B. 2ml x %BSA x Weight (kg) c. C. 4ml x Age x Weight (lb) d. D. 10ml x %BSA
  5. How is the Parkland fluid volume distributed? a. A. All in the first 8 hours b. B. 1/2 in the first 8 hours, 1/2 in the next 16 hours. c. C. 1/4 every 6 hours d. D. All in the first 24 hours equally
  6. Which lab value is initially HIGH in a burn patient due to cell destruction? a. A. Sodium b. B. Potassium c. C. Albumin d. D. Hemoglobin
  7. What is "Rule of Nines" for the entire front torso?
  1. In which stage of shock is the MAP decreased by 10-15 mmHg and UO begins to decrease? a. A. Initial Stage b. B. Nonprogressive (Compensatory) Stage c. C. Progressive Stage d. D. Refractory Stage
  2. Which shock is the ONLY one characterized by bradycardia? a. A. Septic shock b. B. Cardiogenic shock c. C. Neurogenic shock d. D. Hypovolemic shock
  3. What lab value is the primary indicator of sepsis and tissue hypoxia? a. A. Sodium b. B. Lactic Acid c. C. Glucose d. D. Creatinine
  4. What is the priority intervention for septic shock? a. A. Give food b. B. Fluids and antibiotics (after cultures). c. C. Lower the HOB d. D. Administer insulin
  5. Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS) occurs in which stage of shock? a. A. Initial b. B. Nonprogressive c. C. Progressive d. D. Refractory (Irreversible)
  6. A patient with a lactic acid level of 5 mmol/L (Normal < 2) is likely in: a. A. A healthy state b. B. Septic shock c. C. Early heat exhaustion d. D. A state of high anxiety
  7. What is the purpose of an Inferior Vena Cava (IVC) filter? a. A. To pump blood b. B. To trap blood clots before they reach the lungs. c. C. To filter out bacteria d. D. To measure blood pressure
  1. Why should a nurse avoid giving diuretics in the resuscitative phase of a burn? a. A. It would worsen hypovolemia and shock. b. B. It causes high blood sugar. c. C. It causes hallucinations. d. D. It increases the risk of infection.
  2. What is the "nonprogressive stage" of shock also known as? a. A. Irreversible b. B. Compensatory c. C. Initial d. D. Fatal
  3. What is the primary reason to teach a patient to cough and deep breathe after surgery? a. A. To prevent pain b. B. To prevent pneumonia and atelectasis. c. C. To lower blood pressure d. D. To increase appetite
  4. Which surgical position is used for colorectal surgeries and allows access to the anus? a. A. Supine b. B. Jackknife (or Sims) c. C. Fowler’s d. D. Lithotomy
  5. What is the "Lithotomy" position typically used for? a. A. Brain surgery b. B. Gynecology, urology, or pelvic procedures. c. C. Spinal surgery d. D. Heart surgery
  6. A patient in the lithotomy position may experience post-op discomfort in the: a. A. Knees b. B. Shoulders c. C. Head d. D. Fingers
  7. Who is at the greatest risk for a latex allergy? a. A. People with Spina Bifida and healthcare workers. b. B. People with high blood pressure. c. C. People with diabetes. d. D. Children with asthma.