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NURS 612 FINAL EXAM/ ACTUAL PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS /
UPDATED 2024/2025.
Which of the following will best facilitate the interview when obtaining a history for a deaf patient who can read lips? a. Speaking loudly b. Using gestures c. Speaking slowly d. Sitting to the side of the patient -
Approximately what percentage of patients interviewed have a sexual orientation other than heterosexual? a. 2% b. 5% c. 10% d. 20% -
During a history, the patient indicates he has an uncle and a brother with sickle cell disease. Which of the following is an appropriate method to document this information? a. Document this as chief complaint. b. Include it in the family history. c. Include this in past medical history. d. Incorporate this information in the social history.
Which approach is recommended at the onset of an interview? a. Use a structured approach to ask questions.
b. Introduce yourself and include a detailed description of your background and qualifications. c. Use an open-ended approach, let the patient explain the problem or reason for the visit. d. Start with the family history and past medical history to determine the underlying problem. -
Which of the following questions may lead to an inaccurate patient response? a. "Where do you feel the pain?" b. "How does this situation make you feel?" c. "What happened after you noticed your injury?" d. "That was a horrible experience, wasn't it?"
Repeating a patient's answer is an attempt to a. confirm an accurate understanding. b. discourage patient anger or hostility. c. teach the patient new medical terms. d. test the patient's knowledge.
Which of the following history types is unique to a pediatric history? a. Family history b. Developmental history c. Social history d. Past medical history -
During an interview, your patient admits to feeling worthless and having a sleep disturbance for the past 3 weeks. These are clues that warrant the exploration of a. risk for suicide. b. split personality. c. cognitive function. d. functional assessment
d. reduce communication barriers. -
During an interview, a patient describes abdominal pain that often awakens him at night. Which of the following responses by the interviewer would facilitate the interviewing process? a. "Constipation can cause abdominal pain." b. "Do you need a sleeping medication?" c. "Pain is always worse at night, isn't it?" d. "Tell me what you mean by often." –
When taking a patient's history, you are asked questions about your personal life. What is the best response to facilitate the interviewing process? a. Answer briefly and then refocus to the patient's history. b. Give as much detail as possible about the asked information. c. Ignore the question and continue with the patient's history. d. Tell the patient that it is inappropriate to answer personal questions.
During an interview, the patient describes problems associated with an illness and begins to cry. The best action in this situation is to a. stop the interview and reschedule for another time. b. allow the patient to cry and then resume when the patient is ready. c. change the topic to something less upsetting. d. continue the interview while the patient cries in order to get through it quickly.
The balance of hot and cold and its relationship to wellness is a concept that a. has been proven to be without validity. b. is common only in underdeveloped nations. c. has led to poor sanitization practice in many areas of the world. d. is believed by members of many cultures, including Arabs, Asians, Filipinos, and Hispanics. –
Developing a knowledge base about cultural groups allows the practitioner to a. predict with complete accuracy the behavior and attitude of the patient. b. use stereotypic judgments to anticipate the patient's need for instruction and support. c. understand the behaviors, practices, and problems observed. d. change the behavior or practices of the patient to conform to health care practice.
An integral part of the overall effort to respond adequately to a person in need is a. cultural awareness. b. ethnocentric bias. c. political correctness. d. racial alertness.
Which group is most likely to be subjected to invasive cardiac procedures in the United States? a. Middle-class black individuals b. White men c. Upper class women d. Lower class Asians
A common mistake made by health care professionals is to a. acknowledge the practice of folk or herbal remedies. b. adapt health care concepts to meet the needs of individuals of other cultures. c. stereotype individuals based on color or ethnic group. d. carefully assess the understanding and beliefs of culturally diverse individuals. –
All of the following are cultural considerations that affect health care except a. eye color, temperature, and visual acuity. b. social class, age, and gender. c. ethnic traditions, level of education, and family relationships. d. religious beliefs, dietary habits, and mode of communication.
Which of the following infection control guidelines are currently recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)? a. Universal precautions b. Body substance isolation c. Standard precautions d. Illness-based precautions - ANSWER- c
A patient presents with multiple raised lesions on her skin. Which instrument should be used to examine these lesions? a. Calipers b. Ruler c. Tympanometer d. Transilluminator - ANSWER- b
In an outpatient setting such as a clinic, how should infection control practice differ from that in the acute care setting? a. The use of transmission-based precautions is not applicable in an outpatient setting. b. Infection control is limited to protecting outpatient health care providers. c. The spread of infection to other patients is not a concern in the outpatient setting. d. Infection control practice is applicable in all health care settings. - ANSWER- D
In which of the following situations is transillumination an appropriate examination technique? a. Assessment of vesicles on the skin b. Detection of fluid within the sinuses c. Measurement of bone density in the skull d. Determination of a mass in the abdomen - ANSWER- b
Which of the following instruments is used in conjunction with a simple nasal speculum to visualize the lower and middle turbines of the nose? a. Otoscope
b. Penlight c. Ophthalmoscope d. Goniometer - ANSWER- b
On first meeting, the examiner notices that the patient has an obvious odor. Which examination technique is the examiner using in this scenario? a. Inspection b. Palpation c. Percussion d. Auscultation - ANSWER- a
Focused visual attention obtains data from a. inspection. b. palpation. c. percussion. d. auscultation. - ANSWER- A
Which technique is applied throughout the entire examination and interview process? a. Inspection b. Palpation c. Percussion d. Auscultation - ANSWER- a
As a component of palpation, which surface is most sensitive to vibration? a. Fingertips b. Heel of the hand c. Dorsal surface of the hand d. Ulnar surface of the hand - ANSWER- d
b. Heel of the hand c. Dorsal surface of the hand d. Ulnar surface of the hand - ANSWER- a
Ideally, auscultation should be carried out last, except when examining the a. lungs. b. heart. c. abdomen. d. kidney. - ANSWER- C
Which of the following techniques is incorrect and affects the accuracy of auscultation? a. Placing the stethoscope firmly on the surface to be auscultated b. Auscultating through clothing c. Isolating one sound at a time during auscultation d. Listening for sound characteristics - ANSWER- b
The tubing of a stethoscope should be less than 18 inches long to prevent a. transmission of external noise. b. tangling of the tubing in the examiner's clothing or pockets. c. distortion of sounds during auscultation. d. magnification of the transmitted sounds. - ANSWER- C
Which of the following is true regarding the correct use of a stethoscope? a. The bell is pressed lightly against the skin to detect low-frequency sounds. b. The bell is pressed firmly against the skin to hear low-frequency sounds. c. The diaphragm is pressed firmly against the skin to hear low-frequency sounds. d. The diaphragm is pressed lightly against the skin to hear high-frequency sounds. - ANSWER- A
The examiner must be sure that the earpieces of the stethoscope are placed so that the alignment fits the contour of the ear canal. In which direction should they be placed? a. Pointing upward b. Pointing downward c. Pointing forward d. Pointing backward - ANSWER- c
In which of the following situations is use of a Doppler indicated? a. Measurement of body temperature in a hypothermic patient b. Auscultation of the abdomen in a patient with hypoactive or absent bowel sounds c. Measurement of blood pressure in a patient with hypertension d. Auscultation of a nonpalpable pulse in a patient with peripheral vascular disease - ANSWER- d
The red numbers on a lens selector dial of an ophthalmoscope indicate a. that a large amount of light will enter the eye being examined. b. that a small amount of light will enter the eye being examined. c. positive magnification. d. negative magnification. - ANSWER- D
While performing an internal eye examination, the examiner observes a fundal lesion. What feature on the ophthalmoscope permits the examiner to estimate the size and location of the lesion? a. Grid light b. Slit light c. Red-free light d. Small light - ANSWER- a
An ophthalmoscope has positive and negative magnification in order to a. compensate for myopia or hyperopia in the examiner's or the patient's eyes. b. allow for magnification of both the anterior eye and the posterior eye.
d. Anxiety is observed by the examiner. - ANSWER- C
In what way can the patient's modesty be maintained while an examination is being conducted? The examiner should a. turn his or her back while the patient undresses. b. keep the patient covered as much as possible during the examination. c. avoid touching the patient during the examination except when absolutely necessary. d. not require the patient to disrobe for the examination. - ANSWER- B
When performing a physical examination, you should consider the examination to begin a. as soon as you meet the patient. b. after the vital signs are taken. c. after you explain to the patient everything you are going to do. d. after the patient has put on an examination gown. - ANSWER- a
A patient complains of a sore throat. Which aspect of the examination could be eliminated? a. Vital signs b. Palpation of lymph nodes c. Deep tendon reflexes d. Auscultation of the heart and lungs - ANSWER- c
All of the following can be assessed initially during the general inspection except a. mobility. b. nutritional status. c. urinary function. d. skin color. - ANSWER- C
Which of the following is most relevant to the examination of an older adult? a. Functional assessment b. Physical measurements c. Developmental scoring d. Vital signs, including peripheral pulse examination - ANSWER- a
For a routine physical examination, all of the following equipment is necessary except a. penlight. b. measuring tape. c. examination gloves. d. monofilament. - ANSWER- D
Which of the following best describes when the collection of a history should be done? a. At the beginning of an examination to help identify problems b. At the end of the physical examination after problems are identified c. Before, during, and after the examination d. Only when relevant to the situation - ANSWER- c
Mr. Young is an 88-year-old man who comes to the office with his daughter for a follow-up. His daughter reports that he is not able to complete meal preparation, and she brings him meals daily. You
document this as a. patient is unable to complete ADLs. b. patient is unable to complete basic ADLs. c. patient is unable to complete instrumental ADLs. d. patient requires assistance with meal preparation. - ANSWER- C
c. the computer is limited in the amount of data it can interpret. d. the level of skill needed to run a diagnostic computer program is beyond the computer skills of most examiners. - ANSWER- A
To identify problems based on clinical examination, the examiner should organize the data a. by dividing data into normal and abnormal findings. b. by body systems. c. by chief complaints. d. in the order the data were collected. - ANSWER- B
Each of the following could become a barrier to the critical thinking process, except for the examiner's a. feelings. b. attitudes. c. values. d. objectivity. - ANSWER- D
Which statement best characterizes a belief that supports a sound decision-making process? a. The underlying problem is always related to the chief complaint. b. Rare problems tend to have unusual presentations. c. Common problems occur commonly, and rare ones occur rarely. d. A diagnosis should be made quickly to enhance patient confidence. - ANSWER- C
Laboratory tests should be used to: a. confirm a presumed diagnosis. b. develop a list of potential problems. c. rule out all possible causes of symptoms and clinical findings. d. assist the examiner only when the data do not point to a specific problem. - ANSWER- A
Mr. David is a 62-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with alcohol addiction. After discussing his situation, he tells you that he is intending to take action regarding his alcohol use in the immediate future. Which stage of change is he in? a. Contemplation b. Action c. Preparation d. Precontemplation - ANSWER- c
EBP is defined as a. the best available scientific evidence to clinical decision making. b. translating decision making into patient care. c. a balance of treatment or lack of treatment. d. use of critical thinking to determine best diagnosis. - ANSWER- A
How are "normal findings" best documented? a. Write "normal" or "within normal limits" on the documentation form. b. Write "NA" (not applicable) on the documentation sheet. c. Because documentation focuses on abnormal findings, do not write anything for normal findings. d. Document what was actually assessed in specific terms. - ANSWER- D
If a mistake is made in the patient record, it is suggested that a line be drawn through the mistake so that it is still legible. The basis for this action is related to the fact that a. no errors are allowed. b. the chart is a legal document. c. a pen is messy when used to obliterate writing. d. others may want to read what your first impressions were. - ANSWER- B
Which of the following statements is true regarding use of abbreviations? a. Use of any abbreviations is fine as long as you can interpret them.
d. onset. - ANSWER- A
Which of the following correctly describes the method to assess accommodation? a. Shine a light into the pupil, note constriction. b. Note constriction as gaze shifts from across the room to an object 6 inches away. c. Note ocular movement as the patient follows an object through the six cardinal fields. d. Cover one eye of the patient with a card, then remove the card, noting any deviation from a fixed gaze. - ANSWER- B
Before instilling a mydriatic eyedrop, the examiner should a. assess the corneal reflex. b. observe the eye with focused light tangentially. c. assess intraocular pressure. d. observe the eye for vascular changes. - ANSWER- B
Which of the following should be used to test for near vision? a. Rosenbaum chart b. Snellen E chart c. Confrontation test d. Cover-uncover test - ANSWER- a
To visualize the macula, the examiner should ask thepatient to a. blink the eye several times quickly. b. lie in a supine position. c. look directly into the light of the ophthalmoscope.
d. direct his or her eye gaze on an object to the left and then to the right. - ANSWER- C
A 51-year-old patient tells the examiner, "My mother had glaucoma. What can I do to prevent myself from getting it?" Which of the following responses is most appropriate? a. "It is prevented by avoiding chronic eye irritation." b. "Limiting the exposure of ultraviolet light to the eye will prevent glaucoma." c. "Because it is inherited, you will eventually get it, and there is nothing you can do to stop that." d. "Although it can't be prevented, regular screening and testing assist in early detection." - ANSWER- d
Which examination finding may be indicative of a retro-orbital tumor? a. Episcleritis b. Argyll Robertson pupil c. Unilateral exophthalmos d. Retinitis pigmentosa - ANSWER- c
A patient tells the examiner, "I have a loss of vision in the outer half of each eye." Which of the following underlying problems should the examiner consider? a. Diabetes b. Pituitary tumor c. Glaucoma d. Cytomegalovirus infection - ANSWER- b
Which of the following would be applicable to a family history? a. Eye dominance b. Pupil size c. Retinoblastoma d. Sty - ANSWER- c
