Pharmacology Nursing Exam Questions and Answers for Nursing Students, Exercises of Pharmacology

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NURS PHARMACOLOGY

NURSING 2025 - 2026

Pharmacology Nursing

Question 1 A client who has been taking phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for symptoms of urethritis and cystitis comes to the clinic because her urine is reddish-orange. Which question should the practical nurse ask to determine if the medication has been effective? A) How much water have you been drinking each day? B) Does the urine color stain your toilet bowl or undergarments? C) Have you had any relief from urinary pain, burning, or urgency? D) Did your urine appear cloudy or have a foul odor on voiding? Correct Answer C) Have you had any relief from urinary pain, burning, or urgency? Feedback: Phenazopyridine, an over-the-counter urinary analgesic, acts on the mucosa of the urinary tract to relieve urinary pain, burning, itching, or urgency (C) associated with urethritis and cystitis. Although determining if the client is forcing fluids (A), experiencing staining from Pyridium's side effect (B), or having signs of a urinary infection (D) are worthwhile assessments, the therapeutic response of Pyridium is related to urinary discomforts only. Question 2 A male client who has been receiving an antineoplastic drug has developed thrombocytopenia. What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce? A) Use suppository form of drugs. B) Avoid large public gatherings. C) Rise slowly when standing up. D) Shave with an electric razor. Correct Answer D) Shave with an electric razor. Feedback: Thrombocytopenia is a common side effect of bone marrow depression caused by several antineoplastic agents. The client is experiencing a low platelet count and should use an electric razor (D) to reduce his risk of bleeding. (A, B, and C) are not indicated for a client who needs to implement thrombocytopenia precautions. Question 3 The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who has been taking prednisone (Deltasone) daily for a year. Which adverse effect should the PN document in the client's record? A) Photosensitvity. B) Weight gain. C) Loss of hair. D) Pale skin color. Correct Answer B) Weight gain. Feedback: Long term use of prednisone causes fluid retention and redistribution of fat deposition. Weight gain (B) and moon face reflect adverse effects of long-term prednisone use and should be documented. (A, C, and D) do not occur with treatment using prednisone.

A) Activity level. B) Mood and affect. C) Understanding of diet modification. D) The client's support system. Correct Answer C) Understanding of diet modification. Feedback: To prevent a potentially lethal hypertensive crisis, a tyramine-free diet should be maintained during antidepressant therapy with Nardil, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). It is most important to determine if the client understands diet modification (C) before Nardil is initiated to prevent consumption of foods that interact with Nardil. Although a client's activity level (A) and mood and affect (B) should be monitored during antidepressant therapy, it is most important that the client understand diet modifications. The client's support system (D) and network of family and friends is important, but the client should understand the responsibility of dietary compliance with the medication regimen. Question 8 The practical nurse (PN) is unable to arouse a client who is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for postoperative pain. The client is stuporous, has constricted pupils, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/minute. Which PRN prescription should the PN give the client? A) Naloxone (Narcan). B) Promethazine (Phenergan). C) Metoclopramide (Reglan). D) Bethanechol (Urecholine). Correct Answer A) Naloxone (Narcan). Feedback: Narcan (A) is an opioid antagonist and should be administered to reverse the effects of a Demerol, an opioid, overdose. (B, C, and D) are common postoperative PRN prescriptions but are not indicated for narcotic overdose. Question 9 On which therapeutic action should the practical nurse (PN) base an explanation to a client who is receiving a cardiac glycoside? A) Decreased cardiac output. B) Increased renal perfusion. C) Decreased rate of contraction. D) Increased blood volume. Correct Answer C) Decreased rate of contraction. Feedback: Cardiac glycosides increase the force of cardiac contraction (inotropy) and decrease the heart rate (chronotropy) (C) by decreasing the speed of conduction through the heart (dromotropy). (A, B, and D) are incorrect. Question 10

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus received an early AM dose of regular insulin per sliding scale. At 10:00 AM, the practical nurse (PN) should report which signs indicative of hypoglycemia? A) Urticaria and rash. B) Nausea and diarrhea. C) Irritability and confusion. D) Fruity, acetone odor to the breath. Correct Answer C) Irritability and confusion. Feedback: Irritability and confusion (C) are early signs of hypoglycemia. (A, B, and D) are not signs of hypoglycemia. Question 11 Which prescription should the practical nurse (PN) administer for a client who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to an antibiotic? A) Ephedra (ma-huang). B) Epinephrine (Adrenalin). C) Phenylephrin (Neo-Synephrine). D) Fexofenadine with pseudoephedrine (Allegra D). Correct Answer B) Epinephrine (Adrenalin). Feedback: Epinephrine (Adrenalin), a potent sympathomimetic, is the drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylaxis (B). (A, C, and D) are not used for an acute immunololgical dysfunction that causes cardiovascular effects. Question 12 An older adult client receives a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), a thiazide diuretic for the treatment of heart failure. Which side effect(s) should the practical nurse reinforce with the client? (Select all that apply.) A) Constipation. B) Fatigue. C) Edema. D) Nausea. E) Dehydration. F) Blurred vision. Correct Answer B) Fatigue. E) Dehydration. Feedback: Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), a thiazide diuretic, reduces blood pressure by reducing blood volume and reducing arterial resistance. Adverse effects of thiazides include hypokalemia, fatigue (B), dehydration (E), hyperglycemia, and hyperuricemia. Alth ough (A, C, D and F) may be associated with aging or other pathology, they are not side effects commonly associated with HydroDIURIL.

The use of disulfiram (Antabuse) with over-the-counter (OTC) products that contain alcohol causes severe adverse reactions, such as severe nausea, vomiting, chest pain, hyperventilation, tachycardia, seizures, and cardiovascular collapse, and should be avo ided (B). Although a smoking cessation program is always a good health recommendation (A), it is not a priority with Antabuse. (C) is inaccurate. Small amounts, as little as 7 ml, of mouthwash or cough syrup that contains alcohol can precipitate a disulfiram reaction and should not be used (D). Question 16 Which prescription should the practical nurse administer for a client who is experiencing an acute episode of bronchial asthma? A) Nedocromil (Tilade). B) Albuterol (Proventil). C) Zafirlukast (Accolate). D) Triamcinolone (Azmacort). Correct Answer B) Albuterol (Proventil). Feedback: Albuterol (Proventil) (B), an adrenergic agonist, is the first line of treatment for acute episodes of bronchial asthma. (A, C, and D) are maintenance medications used in the prevention of asthmatic episodes and are routinely taken every day, not during an acute episode. Question 17 The practical nurse (PN) should recommend that oral contraceptives be avoided in which group of women? A) Women who smoke. B) Multigravidous women. C) Monogamous women. D) Women with an intrauterine device. Correct Answer A) Women who smoke. Feedback: Oral contraceptives pose an increased risk of thromboembolism for women who smoke (A), and this risk is not increased in (B, C, and D). Question 18 A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is having symptoms of reflux despite taking omeprazole (Prilosec) 20 mg daily. What action should the practical nurse (PN) implement? A) Notify the healthcare provider about the symptoms. B) Obtain vital signs every 30 minutes until symptoms are alleviated. C) Instruct the client to stop taking the medication. D) Tell the client to take an antacid in addition to the omeprazole. Correct Answer

A) Notify the healthcare provider about the symptoms. Feedback: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, acts to reduce gastric acid secretion. If once daily dosing fails to control the client's symptoms, the healthcare provider should be notified (A) for dose adjustment. (B) will not help to reduce the client's symptoms. Unless the client shows symptoms of a hypersensitivity to the medication, the client should not stop the medication (C). (D) should not suggested without a prescription from the healthcare provider. Question 19 The practical nurse (PN) administers isoproterenol (Isuprel) to a client with heart block. The PN should evaluate the client for which physiological response? A) Thirst and dry mucous membranes. B) Decrease in gastric motility. C) Increased heart rate. D) Bronchoconstriction. Correct Answer C) Increased heart rate. Feedback: Isoproterenol (Isuprel) acts on beta 1 receptors in the heart, causing an increased cardiac reactivity in AV heart block and an increase in the client's heart rate (C). (A and B) are anticholinergic responses and are not typical with adrenergic agents, such as isoproterenol. By activating beta 2 receptors found in the smooth muscle of bronchioles, isoproterenol causes bronchodilation, not (D). Question 20 The practical nurse (PN) should emphasize the importance of monitoring for which side effect(s) in a client who takes a daily antilipemic agent? A) Photosensitivity. B) Liver dysfunction. C) Upper respiratory infections (URI). D) Water soluble vitamin deficiencies. Correct Answer B) Liver dysfunction. Feedback: Antilipemic agents (lipid-regulating agents) are metabolized by the liver and require regular monitoring of liver function studies for hepatic dysfunction (B). Photosensitivity (A), URI (C), and vitamin deficiencies (D) are not side-effects of antilipemics. Question 21 A client with Attention Deficit Disorder (ADD) is prescribed amphetamine (Adderall). Which side effect should the practical nurse (PN) explain is commonly experienced? A) Difficulty sleeping. B) Increased fatigue. C) Improved appetite. D) Decreased heart rate.

Correct Answer A) Rash, itching, and hives. Feedback: A client who is unsure about the response to a new antibiotic, especially penicillin, should be assessed for allergy to the drug after receiving a parenteral dose. The symptoms that indicate an allergic reaction include rash, itching, hives (A) and anaphylactic reactions causing laryngeal edema with difficulty breathing. (B, C, and D) are not typical of allergic responses to penicillin. Question 25 A client receives a prescription for clotrimazole 1% (Gyne-Lotrimin) vaginal cream for Candidiasis. Which information should the practical nurse provide the client? A) Discontinue medication if menstruation begins. B) Instill cream using the intravaginal applicator each night for 7 days. C) Use daily douching as part of the treatment for vaginal yeast infections. D) Abstain from sexual intercourse until treatment is completed. Correct Answer B) Instill cream using the intravaginal applicator each night for 7 days. Feedback: The intravaginal cream should be instilled each night for 7 days to complete the medication (B) even if symptoms are relieved. Medication should be continued until it is completed, even during menstruation (A). Douching (C) is contraindicated. Abstinence ( D) is not required. Question 26 A client receives a new prescription for beclomethasone (Beclovent Oral Inhaler). What information should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce with the client about the use of this medication? A) Use for rapid results in acute asthmatic attacks. B) Most effective in preventing upper respiratory infections. C) Daily use provides prophylaxis in asthma management. D) Inhale when exposed to allergens in the environment. Correct Answer C) Daily use provides prophylaxis in asthma management. Feedback: Beclovent Oral Inhaler, an inhaled glucocorticoid, is used for prophylaxis in the management of chronic asthma (C) and should be administered on a fixed schedule, not (D). Inhaled beta 2 agonists, not a glucocorticoid, work rapidly in acute asthma attacks (A) precipitated by environmental allergen exposure (D). Question 27 A client with tuberculosis (TB) asks the practical nurse (PN) the value of prescribed multidrug therapy. What explanation should the PN provide? A) Required to eradicate TB. B) Enhances the effect of each drug. C) Provides a faster effect than single drug therapy. D) Reduces development of TB resistant drugs.

Correct Answer D) Reduces development of TB resistant drugs. Feedback: The use of multiple medications reduces the possibility of the tubercle bacilli becoming drug resistant (D). (A, B, and C) are incorrect. Question 28 The healthcare provider prescribes an antibiotic for a male adolescent with an upper respiratory tract infection who asks the practical nurse (PN) how long the prescribed antibiotics should be taken. What information should the PN provide? A) Continue the medication until all of the prescription is taken. B) Use the medication for 24 hours after the cough subsides. C) Stop the medication when the temperature returns to normal. D) Take any remaining capsules if the infection occurs again. Correct Answer A) Continue the medication until all of the prescription is taken. Feedback: Although the client may feel better after 24 hours of antibiotics, the prescription (A) should be taken until all of it is used. If the antibiotic is discontinued because symptoms have disappeared (B and C), pathogens have an opportunity to increase in virulence or become resistant to the drug. Antibiotics should not be saved (D) for other infections, but new symptoms should be evaluated by the healthcare provider. Question 29 A male client tells the practical nurse (PN) that he takes acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) 325 mg daily. Which finding should alert the PN that the client may be experiencing a side effect of salicylate therapy? A) Skin tears. B) Hypothermia. C) Hepatotoxicity. D) Gastrointestinal distress. Correct Answer D) Gastrointestinal distress. Feedback: Salicylates, such as aspirin, commonly irritate the gastric mucosa, causing gastrointestinal distress (D). (A, B, and C) are inaccurate. Question 30 The healthcare provider prescribes celecoxib (Celebrex), a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID), for a client with osteoarthritis. Which finding in the client's history should the practical nurse (PN) report? A) Gout. B) Hypertension. C) Diabetes mellitus. D) Peptic-ulcer disease. Correct Answer

insulin can be stored at room temperature for 30 days after being opened, and refrigeration (B) is not necessary. Different syringes (C) are not needed when administering two types of insulin. Question 34 What side effect should the practical nurse (PN) report to the healthcare provider for a client who is taking prednisone (Deltasone)? A) Dehydration. B) Hypoglycemia. C) Thickened skin. D) Gastric bleeding. Correct Answer D) Gastric bleeding. Feedback: Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, decreases the viscosity of gastric mucus, which normally protects the lining of the stomach from irritants, which increases the risk of gastric erosion by hydrochloric acid, resulting in gastric bleeding (D). Other adverse effects include sodium and fluid retention, hyperglycemia, and skin fragility, not (A, B, and C). Question 35 What side effect should the practical nurse (PN) report to the healthcare provider for a client who is taking prednisone (Deltasone)? A) Dehydration. Feedback: INCORRECT B) Hypoglycemia. Feedback: INCORRECT C) Thickened skin. Feedback: INCORRECT D) Gastric bleeding. Feedback: CORRECT Correct Answer D) Gastric bleeding. Feedback: Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, decreases the viscosity of gastric mucus, which normally protects the lining of the stomach from irritants, which increases the risk of gastric erosion by hydrochloric acid, resulting in gastric bleeding (D). Other adverse effects include sodium and fluid retention, hyperglycemia, and skin fragility, not (A, B, and C). Question 36 A male client who is hypertensive is starting a new prescription for clonidine (Catapress) 0. mg PO daily. In reviewing common side effects, what information should the practical nurse (PN) provide the client? A) Report problems with sexual function.

B) Monitor respirations on a daily basis. C) Increased libido may be experienced. D) Weight gain may indicate fluid retention. Correct Answer A) Report problems with sexual function. Feedback: Sexual dysfunction (A), such as impotence and decreased libido, is a common complication of antihypertensive medications in male clients. Respiratory changes (B), increased libido (C), and increased weight (D) do not commonly occur with this antihypertensi ve. Question 37 A client who is receiving an antibiotic suddenly develops hives. The practical nurse should report that the client is most likely experiencing which type of drug response? A) Adverse response. B) Hypersensitivity reaction. C) Idiosyncratic reaction. D) Multiple drug interaction. Correct Answer B) Hypersensitivity reaction. Feedback: Hives, a symptom of a hypersensitivity reaction (B), involve an abnormal immune response and are not uncommon with the use of antibiotics. Although (A, C, and D) are unexpected pharmacologic reactions, hives represent a life-threatening allergic response and should be reported to ensure prompt intervention. Question 38 The healthcare provider prescribes cycloplegic and mydriatic ophthalmic drops for a client who is having a cataract removal. What explanation about the drug actions should the practical nurse (PN) provide the client? A) Reduces intraocular pressure. B) Relieves eye pain. C) Treats conjunctivitis. D) Dilates the pupil. Correct Answer D) Dilates the pupil. Feedback: Cycloplegic drugs cause ciliary paralysis, and mydriatics dilate the pupil (D), which facilitates access into the anterior chamber for removal of the lens in cataract surgery. (A, B, and C) are incorrect actions. Question 39 The practical nurse (PN) is assessing a client who takes olanzapine (Zyprexa), an antipsychotic. Which side effect should the PN most likely note in this client? A) Insomnia and irritability. B) Hand tremors and tearing.

A client who is transferred to the cardiac rehabilitation unit after a myocardial infarction is ready for discharge with a new prescription for metoprolol (Lopressor). The client asks, I don't have high blood pressure, so why did my healthcare provider give me this medicine? What information should the practical nurse (PN) provide? A) Anticoagulation is the most important action of metoprolol. B) Beta-blockers are routinely prescribed after heart damage. C) Heart failure is prevented as a complication while healing. D) A slower heart rate reduces the heart's oxygen demand. Correct Answer D) A slower heart rate reduces the heart's oxygen demand. Feedback: Lopressor, a beta-blocker, slows the heart rate and is prescribed after a myocardial infarction to reduce the heart's work load and oxygen demand (D). (A, B, and D) are incorrect. Question 43 Which serum laboratory result should the practical nurse (PN) monitor for the effectiveness of lactulose (Cephulac)? A) Ammonia. B) Potassium. C) Uric acid. D) Triglycerides. Correct Answer A) Ammonia. Feedback: Lactulose reduces blood ammonia (A) levels to improve mental status of a client with hepatic encephalopathy resulting from cirrhosis or other liver problems. Changes in (B, C, and D) do not evaluate the therapeutic response of lactulose. Question 44 The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) after abdominal surgery. Which finding should the PN report to the charge nurse? A) Weight loss. B) Impaired healing. C) Bradycardia. D) Hyperkalemia. Correct Answer B) Impaired healing. Feedback: Glucocorticoids, such as Decadron, are used in the treatment of allergic, inflammatory, and debilitating conditions. A common side of exogenous corticosteroid therapy is hyperglycemia and delayed wound healing (B). (A, C, and D) are side effects not associ ated with the administration of Decadron. Question 45 The practical nurse (PN) is reinforcing teaching for a client who is receiving diltiazem (Cardizem), a calcium channel blocker. Which drug action should the practical nurse explain?

A) Increased force of contraction. B) Decreased rate of contraction. C) Decreased peripheral resistance. D) Increased speed of conduction. Correct Answer B) Decreased rate of contraction. Feedback: Calcium-channel blockers decrease cardiac contractility (inotropy), atrioventricular-node conduction (dromotropy), and heart rate (chronotropy) (B). (A, C, and D) are not pharmacotherapeutic actions for Cardizem. Question 46 A client who received succinylcholine (Anectine), a neuromuscular blocking agent, during a surgical procedure returns to the postoperative unit and is complaining of thirst and wants to drink something. What assessment is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to check before giving oral liquids? A) Gag and swallow reflexes. B) Appetite and interest in food. C) Sensation and movement of all limbs. D) Ability to breathe deeply on command. Correct Answer A) Gag and swallow reflexes. Feedback: Anectine, a neuromuscular blocking agent, paralyzes musculoskeletal muscles and the gag reflex. To reduce the possibility of aspiration, the PN should confirm the return of the client's gag and swallow reflexes (A) before allowing intake of food or liquids. (B, C, and D) should be assessed but do not have the priority of initiating oral intake post-anesthesia. Question 47 A client who is comatose is admitted after an overdose of baclofen (Lioresal). What nursing action should the practical nurse (PN) implement? A) Provide continuous telemetry monitoring. B) Monitor for signs of respiratory arrest. C) Administer prescribed naloxone (Narcan). D) Keep a dose of diazepam at the bedside. Correct Answer B) Monitor for signs of respiratory arrest. Feedback: An overdose of baclofen (Lioresal), a centrally acting muscle relaxant, can cause coma and respiratory depression that requires respiratory support. Monitoring for early signs of respiratory arrest (B) is most important so immediate respiratory resuscitation can be provided. Although telemetry (A) provides close cardiac monitoring, early recognition of respiratory arrest is indicated due to the actions of Lioresal. Narcan (C) is ineffective for baclofen overdose. (D) is not indicated. Question 48

Which International Normalized Ratio (INR) value indicates that warfarin (Coumadin) therapy is at a therapeutic range? A) 1.0 to 2. B) 2.1 to 3. C) 3.1 to 4. D) 4.1 to 5. Correct Answer B) 2.1 to 3. Feedback: Warfarin dosage for therapeutic anticoagulation is adjusted to target a client's INR range between 2 to 3 (B). (A, C, and D) are outside the narrow therapeutic range. Question 52 A client with Parkinson's disease has been taking antiparkinsonian medications for three months. Which client finding should the practical nurse (PN) identify as a therapeutic response? A) Decreased appetite. B) Gradual development of cogwheel rigidity. C) Occurrence of confusion. D) Improved ability to perform activities. Correct Answer D) Improved ability to perform activities. Feedback: Therapeutic responses to antiparkinsonian agents include an improved sense of well - being and improved ability to think clearly and perform activities (D). An increase in appetite, not (A), and less-intense parkinsonism manifestations are expected, not (B or C). Question 53 A male client diagnosed with tuberculosis asks the practical nurse (PN) about his course of drug therapy. Which information should the PN provide? A) Drug therapy requires compliance for 6 to 12 months. B) Medication is stopped when clinical symptoms subside. C) To prevent reactivation, drug therapy is maintained for life. D) To prevent resistance and side effects, drugs are changed. Correct Answer A) Drug therapy requires compliance for 6 to 12 months. Feedback: Antitubercular drug therapy is prescribed for 6 to 12 months, which requires continuous compliance to prevent resistance of the tubercle bacillus, to ensure encapsulation, and prevent reactivation. Drug therapy continues until sputum tests are negative for the tubercle bacillus, and the client is no longer infectious to others, not (B). (C) is inaccurate. Although antibiotics used in antitubercular drug protocols may be changed throughout the course of therapy (D), strict compliance for the duration of therapy is vital in preventing reinfection and spread to others. Question 54

The practical nurse (PN) is reviewing the discharge plan for a client with mania who is receiving lithium carbonate (Eskalith). To achieve a stable serum level, which information should the PN reinforce with the client? A) How to inject this drug. B) When to increase the dosage. C) When to stop using this drug. D) How to recognize symptoms of toxicity. Correct Answer D) How to recognize symptoms of toxicity. Feedback: Lithium carbonate has a very narrow therapeutic serum range, so the client should understand the signs and symptoms of toxicity (D). (A) is not available. (B) increases the client's risk for toxicity. (C) will precipitate recurrence of mania. Question 55 The practical nurse (PN) is reinforcing information to a client about the use of an antiemetic to help manage nausea and vomiting during a course of chemotherapy. Which information is most important for the PN to provide? A) Eat small amounts of food, such as crackers, to soothe the stomach lining. B) Drink any palatable liquid as tolerated when nauseated. C) Ensure safety by taking at bedtime if drowsiness occurs. D) Take at least 30 minutes before a chemotherapeutic agent is received. Correct Answer D) Take at least 30 minutes before a chemotherapeutic agent is received. Feedback: Antiemetics should be given before any chemotherapeutic agent is administered, often 30 minutes to 3 hours before treatment (D). Although (A, B, and C) are useful tips, if tolerated, they do not ensure the maximum therapeutic response. Question 56 A client with chest pain is diagnosed with angina pectoris. On discharge the client receives a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets PRN. Which instruction should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce with this client? A) Take up to five doses at 15 minute intervals for an anginal attack. B) Chew the tablet for maximal effect because does not dissolve quickly. C) Seek immediate hospitalization after the first dose is taken for chest pain. D) Change positions slowly after taking a dose to reduce the chance of falling. Correct Answer D) Change positions slowly after taking a dose to reduce the chance of falling. Feedback: Sublingual nitroglycerin may cause hypotension, so the client should be instructed to change positions slowly to avoid injury falling or fainting after taking a dose (D). (A, B, and C) are inaccurate. Question 57