NURS231 BIOD331 Module 2 Exam 2026 (PDF) | Pathophysiology | Portage Learning, Exams of Pathophysiology

INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD – NURS 231 / BIOD 331 Pathophysiology Module 2 Exam (2 Version Exam) + Study Guide with verified answers. Includes updated exam-style questions, key definitions, and focused review notes to strengthen Module 2 concepts and boost confidence for Portage Learning quizzes/exams. NURS231 module 2 exam, BIOD331 module 2 exam, pathophysiology module 2, Portage Learning BIOD331, Portage Learning NURS231, module 2 study guide, verified answers pdf, exam questions and answers, practice exam pdf, test bank pathophysiology, nursing pathophysiology notes, disease mechanisms, inflammation pathways, immune response, hemodynamics, fluid shifts, acid base questions, multiple choice questions, true false questions, 2 version exam, latest update 2026, Portage Learning exam prep

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Download NURS231 BIOD331 Module 2 Exam 2026 (PDF) | Pathophysiology | Portage Learning and more Exams Pathophysiology in PDF only on Docsity!

Inside you will get:

➢ Updated 2 Version Exam + Study Guide

➢ True & False Questions

➢ Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

➢ Expert-Verified Explanations

Table of Contents

BIOD 331 MODULE 2 EXAM VERSION 1 ............................................ 1

BIOD 331 MODULE 2 EXAM VERSION 2 .......................................... 14

BIOD 331 MODULE 2 EXAM STUDY GUIDE .............................................. 27

BIOD 331 MODULE 2 EXAM VERSION 1

1. Define neoplasia and neoplasm. Answer:

Answer:

- Continuously dividing (or labile) cells: Examples include surface epithelial cells (skin, gastrointestinal tract) and hematopoietic cells (blood). - Quiescent (stable) cells: These cells, such as hepatocytes (liver) and kidney cells, have a low level of replication but can proliferate in response to injury. - Permanent (non-dividing) cells: Most neurons and cardiac muscle cells fall into this category and have little to no capacity to divide postnatally.

Verified Rationale: These categorizations reflect a tissue’s capacity for repair and regeneration. Labile tissues can readily regenerate, stable tissues retain the ability to re-enter the cell cycle if needed, whereas permanent tissues repair primarily by fibrosis.


4. Are blood tests for tumor markers the single best screening tool for cancer? Why or why not? Answer: No, blood tests for tumor markers are not the single best screening tool for cancer.

Verified Rationale: Tumor markers often lack specificity and sensitivity. They may be elevated in benign as well as malignant conditions and, in many cancers, may not be elevated during early disease. Their best utility is in monitoring response to therapy, surveillance for recurrence, or determining prognosis rather than initial screening or diagnosis.


5. Can blood tests for tumor markers independently diagnose cancer? Why or why not?

Answer: No, they cannot independently diagnose cancer.

Verified Rationale: Elevated tumor markers alone are insufficient for a cancer diagnosis due to the potential for false positives (benign conditions) and false negatives (especially in early- stage malignancies). Definitive diagnosis generally requires histological or cytological evaluation of tissue.


6. What is the critical role of a tissue biopsy in cancer diagnosis? Answer: A tissue biopsy is vital for the histologic and cytologic assessment necessary for an accurate cancer diagnosis.

Verified Rationale: It enables the microscopic evaluation of cellular morphology and tissue architecture, confirming malignancy and identifying the specific histologic subtype, which is essential for guiding management.


  1. List two signs or symptoms that might indicate a cancer diagnosis, and two common side effects experienced by cancer patients. Answer: Signs/symptoms: (1) Unexplained bleeding, (2) Unintentional weight loss. Common side effects: (1) Cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome, (2) Fatigue and anemia.

Surgical resection can be curative in localized cancers. Chemotherapeutic agents frequently target rapidly dividing cells, including hematopoietic stem cells, leading to life-threatening cytopenias.


10. What are the three primary goals of cancer treatment, and how does radiation therapy destroy cancer cells? Answer: The three goals are: (1) Curative, (2) Control, (3) Palliative. Radiation kills cancer cells by inducing DNA damage, primarily through generation of free radicals, which leads to cell death or interruption of the cell cycle.

Verified Rationale: Curative intent seeks eradication, control aims to limit progression, palliative care addresses symptom relief. Radiation is highly effective, particularly for localized tumors and in the palliation of symptomatic metastases.


  1. Define the two properties shared by stem cells. Answer: Stem cells possess: (1) Self-renewal, (2) Potency (differentiation potential).

Verified Rationale: Self-renewal enables the maintenance of the stem cell pool. Potency refers to the range of cell types a stem cell can generate, from totipotent (entire organism) to unipotent (one cell type).


12. What is a polyp? Is it benign or malignant? Answer: A polyp is a growth projecting from a mucous membrane, such as in the colon. Polyps can be benign or may exhibit malignant transformation.

Verified Rationale: Most polyps are benign, but certain types, especially adenomatous polyps in the colon, represent precancerous states.


13. How do cancer cells achieve biological immortality? Answer: Cancer cells achieve immortality by upregulating telomerase, an enzyme that maintains telomere length and allows indefinite divisions.

Verified Rationale: Normal somatic cells undergo senescence due to progressive telomere shortening; cancer cells circumvent this limit via telomerase activation.


14. What is a tumor suppressor gene? Provide an example. Answer: A tumor suppressor gene encodes proteins that regulate cell division, repair DNA, and promote apoptosis. Examples include TP53, BRCA1, and BRCA2.

Verified Rationale:

Tumor suppressor genes, such as BRCA1/2, are actively involved in DNA repair processes.

Verified Rationale: Defective DNA repair increases mutagenesis, contributing to cancer development.


  1. Given several tumors, determine benign vs. malignant status by nomenclature. Examples:
  • Papilloma, Lipoma, Hemangioma, Adenoma, Glioma = Benign
  • Leiomyosarcoma, Adenocarcinoma, Neuroblastoma, Melanoma, Lymphoma = Malignant

Verified Rationale: The suffix "-oma" typically denotes benign tumors, except for certain malignant tumors by convention (e.g., melanoma, lymphoma, hepatoma).


19. What distinguishes a benign from a malignant tumor? Answer: Benign tumors are well-differentiated, grow slowly, encapsulated, and do not metastasize. Malignant tumors are poorly differentiated, grow rapidly, invade, and metastasize.

Verified Rationale: Benign lesions are localized and less life-threatening, unless they affect vital structures. Malignant tumors display infiltrative growth and can spread distantly, often with fatal consequences.

20. Explain how cancer spreads via metastasis and describe symptoms associated with metastatic lung cancer. Which screening is indicated? Answer: Metastasis involves cancer cells detaching from the primary tumor, invading extracellular matrix, intravasating into circulation, surviving transit, extravasating, and colonizing new tissues. Symptoms: Cough, chest pain, dyspnea, bone pain (if metastatic to bone). Screening: Annual low-dose chest computed tomography (CT) is recommended for at- risk populations.

Verified Rationale: Metastatic dissemination is the hallmark of malignancy. Early detection via appropriate screening improves prognosis.


  1. List common risk factors linked to cancer. Answer: Risk factors include heredity, hormonal factors, obesity, immune dysfunction, environmental carcinogens (e.g., tobacco, alcohol, chemicals), ionizing radiation, and oncogenic viruses.

Verified Rationale: Carcinogenesis is multifactorial, with prevention relying on risk reduction and early detection in susceptible populations.


  1. Differentiate between true and false regarding associations of viral agents and cancers. **Correct Pairings:
  • HPV:** Cervical carcinoma (Not genital warts only) - EBV: Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma - HBV: Hepatocellular carcinoma - HHV-8: Kaposi sarcoma

  1. Provide one example each of cancer screening by observation, palpation, and laboratory test. **Answer:
  • Observation:** Visual skin examination - Palpation: Breast physical exam - Laboratory Test: Papanicolaou (Pap) test

Verified Rationale: Screening programs aim to detect cancer at an early, more treatable stage using a range of methods tailored to the organ system at risk.


This format should help you study and demonstrate a thorough academic understanding of neoplasia and cancer pathophysiology for BIOD 331 at Portage Learning, or similar university courses. Let me know if you need further case studies, explanations, or sample exam questions!

BIOD 331 MODULE 2 EXAM VERSION 2

1. List two signs or symptoms a patient may present with that might indicate a cancer diagnosis: Possible answers: Bleeding, a non-healing sore, pleural or pericardial effusions, chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, abdominal swelling or discomfort, presence of a mass/lump, fatigue, fevers, weight loss. 2. What are two systemic manifestations of cancer exhibited by cancer patients? Possible answers: Unintentional weight loss, cachexia (wasting of fat and muscle tissue), generalized weakness, anorexia, anemia, persistent fatigue, and sleep disturbances.

Verified Explanation: Cancer initially presents with local or organ-specific signs, but systemic symptoms often reflect widespread disease or paraneoplastic syndromes.


3. What are the three possible goals of cancer treatment?

  • Curative
  • Control
  • Palliative 4. How does radiation kill cancer cells?

Verified Explanation: Radiation therapy delivers ionizing energy that generates free radicals, inflicting irreparable DNA damage and cellular dysfunction. This disrupts mitosis and ultimately leads to the programmed death (apoptosis) of malignant cells.

microscopic examination, allowing for precise identification of cancer type, grade, and specific histological features, which are essential for targeted therapy and prognostication.


**8. Explain the TNM system: Correct Answer:

  • T:** Refers to the size and extent of the primary tumor (Tumor). - N: Denotes regional lymph node involvement (Nodes). - M: Indicates the presence or extent of distant metastatic spread (Metastasis).

Verified Explanation: The TNM classification is a globally utilized system for cancer staging, guiding treatment decisions, identifying prognosis, and facilitating consistent communication across oncology disciplines.

7. True/False: Cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division. Correct Answer: False

Verified Explanation: Cell differentiation is the process by which unspecialized precursor cells mature into specialized cell types, acquiring distinct functions. It is not synonymous with cell proliferation.


8. What are two important properties that stem cells possess? Correct Answer: Potency and self-renewal

Verified Explanation: Potency describes a stem cell's capacity to differentiate into

various cell types, while self-renewal denotes the ability to undergo numerous cycles of cell division while retaining an undifferentiated state.


9. Which of the following are most likely to have arisen from an adult stem cell? Correct Answer: Epithelial

Verified Explanation: Epithelial tissues have high cellular turnover, sustained by resident adult stem cells to replenish differentiated cells continuously.


10. Define polyp. Are they benign or malignant? Correct Answer: Polyps are abnormal growths on mucosal surfaces, such as the intestinal, vaginal, oral, or nasal linings.

Verified Explanation: Polyps may be either benign or malignant; although most are benign, some can undergo dysplastic transformation and become cancerous.


11. How do cancer cells achieve immortality? Correct Answer: By upregulating telomerase, an enzyme that maintains telomere length and prevents replicative senescence.

Verified Explanation: High telomerase activity in malignant cells allows continuous DNA replication and evasion of normal cellular aging pathways.

how cancer spreads metastatically. (2) What symptoms might he have presented with? (3) Which screening test would he have benefited from? Correct Answer:

  1. Metastasis involves malignant cells detaching from the primary tumor, invading surrounding stroma, entering circulation (blood or lymphatic vessels), surviving hemodynamic stresses, exiting at distant sites, invading new tissue, and proliferating to establish secondary tumors. 2. Possible symptoms: Chest pain, cough, dyspnea, bone pain. 3. Benefit: Low-dose annual chest CT scan for high-risk populations (such as heavy smokers).

Verified Explanation: Early detection via screening can identify lung cancer before symptomatic metastasis develops, improving clinical outcomes.


15. Malignant tumors have which of the following characteristics? Select all that apply.

  • Variable rate of growth
  • Spreads by metastasis

Verified Explanation: Unlike benign tumors (usually slow-growing, encapsulated, and non-metastatic), malignant neoplasms display unpredictable proliferation rates and are capable of metastasizing.


16. What are molecular and cellular mechanisms in genes that increase susceptibility to cancer? Select all that apply.

  • Lack of cellular senescence
  • Angiogenesis
  • Mutations in growth factor signaling pathways

Verified Explanation: These mechanisms underlie the capacity of cells to evade normal checkpoints, sustain unregulated proliferation, and maintain tumor growth.


17. List 4 of the 7 risk factors linked to cancer as stated in the module:

  • Heredity
  • Hormonal factors
  • Obesity
  • Immunologic mechanisms
  • Environmental agents (chemicals, radiation)
  • Cancer-causing viruses

Verified Explanation: Risk factors can be inherited, environmental, or acquired, and often act synergistically to promote malignant transformation.


**18. List three characteristics of cancer cells and briefly explain what it means:

  • Anaplasia:** Loss of differentiation and structure; hallmark of high-grade malignancy. - Genetic instability: A high rate of mutations, fueling tumor progression and heterogeneity. - Growth factor independence: Cancer cells often proliferate without the normal requirement for external growth signals, leading to autonomous growth.