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Chapter 1. The Role of the Nurse Practitioner
Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
1.Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
2. Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
3. Handing out drug samples to poor patients
4.Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs
Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
1. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
2.Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
3. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a
prescription
4.Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration guidelines for prescribing
Chapter 2. Review of Basic Principles of Pharmacology
1. A patient’s nutritional intake and laboratory results reflect
hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because:
1.Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected.
2. The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption.
3.There will be less free drug available to generate an effect.
4. Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidneys.
2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
1.Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
2. Bypass the hepatic circulation
3.Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
4. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be the:
1.Kidneys
2. Lungs
3.Bile and feces
4.Skin
4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed intramuscularly (IM)
to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
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Chapter 1. The Role of the Nurse Practitioner Clinical judgment in prescribing includes: 1.Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed

  1. Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
  2. Handing out drug samples to poor patients 4.Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
  3. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them 2.Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
  4. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription 4.Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration guidelines for prescribing **Chapter 2. Review of Basic Principles of Pharmacology
  5. A patient’s nutritional intake and laboratory results reflect hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because:** 1.Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected.
  6. The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption. 3.There will be less free drug available to generate an effect.
  7. Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidneys. 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect: 1.Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
  8. Bypass the hepatic circulation 3.Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
  9. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be the: 1.Kidneys
  10. Lungs 3.Bile and feces 4.Skin 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed intramuscularly (IM) to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
  1. Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
  2. Are the reason for giving loading doses 3.Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
  3. Are most common in collagen tissues 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug's: 1.Propensity to go to the target receptor
  4. Biological half-life 3.Pharmacodynamics
  5. Safety and side effects 6. Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day’s dosage be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose: 1 .Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
  6. Requires four- to five-half-lives to attain 3.Is influenced by renal function
  7. Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
  8. Minimum adverse effect level 2.Peak of action
  9. Onset of action 4.Therapeutic range 8. Phenytoin requires that a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done: 1.When the drug has a wide therapeutic range 2.When the drug will be administered for a short time only
  10. When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites 4.To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range 9. A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the: 1.Concentration will produce therapeutic effects

15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?

  1. Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained-release mechanisms.
  2. All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.
  3. Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.
  4. Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability. 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true? 1.Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
  5. The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells. 3.The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
  6. Lipid-soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women. 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via phase I or phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:
  7. Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues 2.Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
  8. Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete 4.Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be:
  9. More active than the parent drug
  10. Less active than the parent drug
  11. Totally "deactivated"so they are excreted without any effect
  12. All of the above 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by: 1.Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney 2.Chronic renal disease
  13. Competition for a transport site by another drug 4.Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins

20. Steady state is:

  1. The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion 2.When the amount of drug in the body remains constant 3.When the amount of drug in the body stays below the minimum toxic concentration 4.All of the above 21. Two different pain medications are given together for pain relief. The drug—drug interaction is:
  2. Synergistic
  3. Antagonistic 3.Potentiative
  4. Additive 22. Actions taken to reduce drug—drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT :
  5. Reducing the dosage of one of the drugs
  6. Scheduling their administration at different times 3.Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
  7. Reducing the dosage of both drugs 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
  8. Protein malnutrition
  9. Iron-deficiency anemia 3.Both 1 and 2
  10. Neither 1 nor 2 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called: 1.Steady state
  11. Half-life
  12. Phase II metabolism 4.Reduced bioavailability time
  1. The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed. 2.A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption.
  2. The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed.
  3. Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane. 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is:
  4. Absorbed rapidly 2.Excreted rapidly
  5. Metabolized minimally
  6. Distributed equally 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may: 1.Induce the metabolism of another drug
  7. Inhibit the metabolism of another drug 3.Both 1 and 2
  8. Neither 1 nor 2 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
  9. After the second dose
  10. After four to five half-lives 3.When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
  11. One hour after IV administration 34. Upregulation or hypersensitization may lead to: 1.Increased response to a drug
  12. Decreased response to a drug 3.An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn
  13. Refractoriness or complete lack of response **Chapter 3. Rational Drug Selection
  14. An NP would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6-year-old child because:** 1.Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach.

2.A 6-year-old child may have problems swallowing a pill.

  1. Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect. 4.Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as the tablet form. 2. In deciding which of multiple drugs used to use to treat a condition, the NP chooses Drug A because it:
  2. Has serious side effects and it is not being used for a life-threatening condition
  3. Will be taken twice daily and will be taken at home 3.Is expensive, but covered by health insurance 4.None of these are important in choosing a drug 3. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
  4. Body temperature varies between men and women.
  5. Muscle mass is greater in women.
  6. Percentage of fat differs between genders.
  7. Proven subjective factors exist between the genders. 4. The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is:
  8. Choosing the treatment 2.Educating the patient about the medication
  9. Diagnosing the patient’s problem 4.Starting the treatment 5. Treatment goals in prescribing should:
  10. Always be curative 2.Be patient-centered
  11. Be convenient for the provider
  12. Focus on the cost of therapy 6. The therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):
  13. Curative 2.Palliative
  14. Preventive

3.Herbal products, such as St John'swort 4.Dietary supplements, such as Ensure

3. An Investigational New Drug is filed with the U.S. Food and Drug Administration: 1.When the manufacturer has completed phase III trials

  1. When a new drug is discovered 3.Prior to animal testing of any new drug entity 4.Prior to human testing of any new drug entity 4. Phase IV clinical trials in the United States are also known as:
  2. Human bioavailability trials 2.Postmarketing research
  3. Human safety and efficacy studies 4.The last stage of animal trials before the human trials begin 5. Off-label prescribing is:
    1. Regulated by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration 2.Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
  4. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
  5. Regulated by the Drug Enforcement Administration 6. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration:
  6. Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances 2.Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
  7. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label 4.Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing 7. Drugs that are designated Schedule II by the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration:
  8. Are known teratogens during pregnancy
  9. May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
  10. Have a low abuse potential
  11. May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state 8. Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
  1. Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy 2.Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
  2. Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic 4.Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed 9. Strategies prescribers can use to prevent misuse of controlled prescription drugs include:
  3. Use of chemical dependency screening tools 2.Firm limit-setting regarding prescribing controlled substances 3.Practicing "justsay no"to deal with patients who are pushing the provider to prescribe controlled substances
    1. All of the above 10. Behaviors predictive of addiction to controlled substances include: 1.Stealing or borrowing another patient'sdrugs
  4. Requiring increasing doses of opiates for pain associated with malignancy 3.Receiving refills of a Schedule II prescription on a regular basis 4.Requesting that only their own primary care provider prescribe for them 11. Medication agreements or "PainMedication Contracts"are recommended to be used: 1.Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain 2.For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication 3.When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior 4.For patients with pain associated with malignancy 12. A prescription needs to be written for: 1.Legend drugs 2.Most controlled drugs
  5. Medical devices 4.All of the above **Chapter 5. Adverse Drug Reactions
  6. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs):** 1.A 32-year-old male

3.III

4. IV

7. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n):

  1. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction 2.Immune complex hypersensitivity
  2. Immediate hypersensitivity reaction 4.Delayed hypersensitivity reaction 8. Anaphylactic shock is a:
  3. Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction 2.Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
  4. Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity 4.Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction 9. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction? 1.Type B
  5. Type C 3.Type E 4.Type F 10. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a type D reaction because they are known:
  6. Teratogens
  7. Carcinogens
  8. To cause hypersensitivity reactions
  9. Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis suppressants 11. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for a adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids. 1.Rapid
  10. First-dose

3.Late

  1. Delayed 12. An example of a first-dose reaction that may occur includes: 1.Orthostatic hypotension that does not occur with repeated doses
  2. Purple glove syndrome with phenytoin use 3.Hemolytic anemia from ceftriaxone use 4.Contact dermatitis from neomycin use 13. Drugs that are prone to cause adverse drug effects include: 1.Diuretics 2.Inhaled anticholinergics
  3. Insulins 4.Stimulants 14. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration MedWatch system is activated when:
  4. There is an adverse event to a vaccine.
  5. The patient has a severe reaction that is noted in the "SevereReaction" sectionin the medication label.
  6. A lactating woman takes a medication that is potentially toxic to the breastfeeding infant.
  7. An adverse event or serious problem occurs with a medication that is not already identified on the label. 15. The Vaccine Adverse Events Reporting System is:
  8. A mandatory reporting system for all health-care providers when they encounter an adverse vaccine event
  9. A voluntary reporting system that health-care providers or consumers may use to report vaccine adverse events
  10. Utilized to send out safety alerts regarding emerging vaccine safety issues
  11. Activated when a vaccine has been proven to cause significant adverse effects Chapter 11. Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Nervous System Multiple Choice
  1. Dysrhythmias 2.Impaired insulin release
  2. Reflex orthostatic changes 4.Decreased triglycerides and cholesterol 7. Richard is 70 years old and has a history of cardiac dysrhythmias. He has been prescribed nadolol. You do his annual laboratory work and find a CrCl of 25 ml/min. What action should you take related to his nadolol? 1.Extend the dosage interval. 2.Decrease the dose by 75%. 3.Take no action because this value is expected in the older adult. 4.Schedule a serum creatinine level to validate the CrCl value. 8. Beta blockers are the drugs of choice for exertional angina because they:
  3. Improve myocardial oxygen supply by vasodilating the coronary arteries 2.Decrease myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate and vascular resistance 3.Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 9. Adherence to beta blocker therapy may be affected by their: 1.Short half-lives requiring twice daily dosing
  5. Tendency to elevate lipid levels 3.Effects on the male genitalia, which may produce impotence
  6. None of the above 10. Beta blockers have favorable effects on survival and disease progression in heart failure. Treatment should be initiated when the:
    1. Symptoms are severe
  7. Patient has not responded to other therapies
  8. Patient has concurrent hypertension
  9. Left ventricular dysfunction is diagnosed 11. Abrupt withdrawal of beta blockers can be life threatening. Patients at highest risk for serious consequences of rapid withdrawal are those with: 1.Angina

2.Coronary artery disease

  1. Both 1 and 2 4.Neither 1 nor 2 12. To prevent life-threatening events from rapid withdrawal of a beta blocker:
  2. The dosage interval should be increased by 1 hour each day. 2.An alpha blocker should be added to the treatment regimen before withdrawal.
  3. The dosage should be tapered over a period of weeks. 4.The dosage should be decreased by one-half every 4 days. 13. Beta blockers are prescribed for diabetics with caution because of their ability to produce hypoglycemia and block the common symptoms of it. Which of the following symptoms of hypoglycemia is not blocked by these drugs and so can be used to warn diabetics of possible decreased blood glucose? 1.Dizziness 2.Increased heart rate
  4. Nervousness and shakiness
  5. Diaphoresis 14. Combined alpha-beta antagonists are used to reduce the progression of heart failure because they: 1. Vasodilate the peripheral vasculature 2.Decrease cardiac output
  6. Increase renal vascular resistance 4.Reduce atherosclerosis secondary to elevated serum lipoproteins 15. Carvedilol is heavily metabolized by CYP2D6 and 2C9, resulting in drug interactions with which of the following drug classes?
  7. Histamine 2 blockers
  8. Quinolones 3.Serotonin re-uptake inhibitors
  9. All of the above 16. Alpha-beta blockers are especially effective to treat hypertension for which ethnic group? 1.White
  10. Asian

1.Donepezil 2.Galantamine 3.Rivastigmine 4.Memantine

23. Which of the following drugs should be used only when clearly needed in pregnant and breastfeeding women? 1.Memantine 2.Pyridostigmine

  1. Galantamine 4.Rivastigmine 24. There is a narrow margin between first appearance of adverse reaction to AChE inhibitors and serious toxic effects. Adverse reactions that require immediate action include: 1.Dizziness and headache
  2. Nausea 3.Decreased salivation
  3. Fasciculations of voluntary muscles 25. Adherence is improved when a drug can be given once daily. Which of the following drugs can be given once daily?
  4. Tacrine
  5. Donepezil
  6. Memantine
  7. Pyridostigmine 26. Nicotine has a variety of effects on nicotinic receptors throughout the body. Which of the following is NOT an effect of nicotine? 1.Vasodilation and decreased heart rate 2.Increased secretion of gastric acid and motility of the GI smooth muscle
  8. Release of dopamine at the pleasure center 4.Stimulation of the locus coeruleus 27. Nicotine gum products are:
  9. Chewed to release the nicotine and then swallowed for a systemic effect
  1. "Parked"in the buccal area of the mouth to produce a constant amount of nicotine release 3.Bound to exchange resins so the nicotine is only released during chewing
  2. Approximately the same in nicotine content as smoking two cigarettes 28. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT): 1.Is widely distributed in the body only when the gum products are used
  3. Does not cross the placenta and so is safe for pregnant women 3.Delays healing of esophagitis and peptic ulcers
  4. Has no drug interactions when a transdermal patch is used 29. Success rates for smoking cessation using NRT: 1.Are about the same regardless of the method chosen
  5. Vary from 40% to 50% at 12 months 3.Both 1 and 2
  6. Neither 1 nor 2 30. Cholinergic blockers are used to: 1.Counteract the extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) effects of phenothiazines
  7. Control tremors and relax smooth muscle in Parkinson'sdisease 3.Inhibit the muscarinic action of ACh on bladder muscle 4.All of the above 31. Several classes of drugs have interactions with cholinergic blockers. Which of the following is true about these interactions?
  8. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range given orally may not stay in the GI tract long enough to produce an action.
  9. Additive antimuscarinic effects may occur with antihistamines.
  10. Cholinergic blockers may decrease the sedative effects of hypnotics.
  11. Cholinergic blockers are contraindicated with antipsychotics. 32. Scopolamine can be used to prevent the nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness. The patient is taught to: 1.Apply the transdermal disk at least 4 hours before the antiemetic effect is desired.
  12. Swallow the tablet 1 hour before traveling where motion sickness is possible. 3.Place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve.