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Question 1. Which active‑listening technique involves restating the speaker’s words to confirm understanding? A) Summarizing B) Reflecting C) Paraphrasing D) Clarifying Answer: C Explanation: Paraphrasing repeats the speaker’s message in the listener’s own words, showing that the content was heard correctly. Question 2. In Oceania, the most common barrier to cross‑cultural communication is: A) Language dialect differences B) Time‑zone mismatches C) Technological incompatibility D) Uniform business attire Answer: A Explanation: Diverse Indigenous and Pacific languages create frequent misunderstandings unless interpreted or translated accurately. Question 3. A de‑escalation strategy that asks the upset client to “take a breath and tell me what you need” is an example of: A) Power‑assertive communication B) Collaborative problem solving C) Passive avoidance D) Directive questioning Answer: B
Explanation: Collaborative problem solving invites the client to participate in finding a solution, reducing tension. Question 4. The NWCA Code of Ethics requires members to: A) Prioritize profit over client welfare B) Disclose conflicts of interest promptly C) Share client information with colleagues freely D) Accept gifts from vendors without restriction Answer: B Explanation: Transparency about conflicts protects client trust and upholds professional integrity. Question 5. Maintaining professional boundaries means: A) Becoming friends on social media with every client B) Discussing personal finances with a client C) Limiting the relationship to the scope of services provided D) Allowing clients to dictate work schedules Answer: C Explanation: Boundaries ensure the relationship stays therapeutic and avoids exploitation. Question 6. When faced with an ethical dilemma, the NWCA recommends using which decision‑making model first? A) Utilitarian analysis B) The “Four‑Quadrant” model C) The “Ethical Decision‑Making Framework” (Identify, Evaluate, Act, Review) D) The “Cost‑Benefit” matrix Answer: C
Explanation: PCBU must eliminate or minimise risks to health and safety as far as reasonably practicable. Question 10. Which of the following is NOT a typical workplace hazard in a health‑care setting? A) Sharps injuries B. Ergonomic strain from computer work C) Exposure to ultraviolet radiation from sunlight D) Biological contamination Answer: C Explanation: UV exposure is uncommon indoors; the other options are well‑documented hazards. Question 11. A risk assessment must be reviewed: A) Only after a serious incident B) Every five years regardless of changes C) Whenever there is a change in work practice or environment D) When the manager feels like it Answer: C Explanation: Ongoing review ensures emerging risks are identified and controlled. Question 12. Under the Model WHS Act, who is primarily responsible for reporting a near‑miss incident? A) The client B) The nearest supervisor or PCBU C) The government regulator D) The insurance company
Answer: B Explanation: Immediate supervisors or PCBU must record and investigate near‑misses to prevent future accidents. Question 13. Legally required client records must be retained for at least: A) 2 years after discharge B) 5 years after the last entry C) 7 years after the client’s death D) 10 years from the date of creation Answer: C Explanation: In many Oceania jurisdictions, records relating to health care must be kept for 7 years after death. Question 14. “Scope of Practice” refers to: A) The range of services a professional is legally permitted to provide B) The number of clients a practitioner can see per day C) The geographic area a practitioner can travel to D) The salary band of a professional Answer: A Explanation: Scope of Practice delineates the tasks a practitioner is qualified and authorized to perform. Question 15. Informed consent must include: A) Only the cost of the service B) A brief statement that “everything is fine” C) Information about risks, benefits, alternatives, and the right to withdraw D) The practitioner’s personal opinion about the treatment
Explanation: Reasonable accommodation is a legal requirement unless it imposes disproportionate burden. Question 19. A Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for equipment calibration should be reviewed: A) Once, after purchase B) Every ten years C) Whenever the equipment shows drift or after major repairs D) Only when a client complains Answer: C Explanation: Calibration SOPs need updating after any indication of inaccuracy or after service. Question 20. Proper maintenance of a digital stethoscope includes: A) Immersing it in water weekly B) Regular firmware updates and cleaning the sensor with approved wipes C) Using any household cleaner on the device D) Storing it in direct sunlight to charge the battery Answer: B Explanation: Firmware updates ensure functionality; approved wipes keep the sensor clean without damage. Question 21. When a software error displays “404 Not Found” during client data entry, the appropriate troubleshooting step is to: A) Restart the entire network B) Verify the URL or pathway to the database and correct any typos C) Delete the client’s record D) Ignore the error and continue working
Answer: B Explanation: A 404 indicates an incorrect address; correcting the path resolves the issue. Question 22. Quality assurance in record‑keeping is best achieved by: A) Randomly deleting old files to free space B) Conducting periodic audits against a documented checklist C) Allowing each staff member to set their own standards D) Relying solely on automated backups Answer: B Explanation: Audits verify compliance with standards and identify gaps. Question 23. Continuous improvement loops, such as Plan‑Do‑Check‑Act (PDCA), help organisations: A) Maintain the status quo B) Identify, test, and embed enhancements systematically C) Reduce staff training needs D) Eliminate all errors instantly Answer: B Explanation: PDCA provides a structured method for iterative improvement. Question 24. Which is the first action in a standard fire emergency response? A) Evacuate the building immediately using the nearest exit B) Call the client to inform them of the situation C) Attempt to extinguish the fire regardless of size D) Gather personal belongings before leaving Answer: A
Explanation: Manaakitanga is about showing generosity, kindness, and support. Question 28. The Treaty of Waitangi’s three articles primarily guarantee Māori: A) Land ownership, language rights, and voting power B) Self‑determination, cultural preservation, and equal partnership with the Crown C) Exclusive access to healthcare services D) Immunity from all New Zealand laws Answer: B Explanation: The Treaty establishes partnership, protection, and participation principles. Question 29. A culturally safe practice means: A) Ignoring cultural differences to treat everyone the same B) Providing services that respect the client’s cultural identity and reduce power imbalances C) Requiring clients to adopt the practitioner’s culture D) Offering only Western‑based treatment options Answer: B Explanation: Cultural safety focuses on respectful, empowering care that acknowledges cultural contexts. Question 30. To promote an inclusive workplace for LGBTQIA+ staff, an organization should: A) Mandate that all employees disclose their sexual orientation B) Provide gender‑neutral restrooms and use inclusive language in policies C) Exclude discussions of sexuality from any training D) Require uniform dress codes that reinforce binary gender norms Answer: B Explanation: Inclusive facilities and language affirm diversity and reduce discrimination.
Question 31. Unconscious bias can be mitigated by: A) Ignoring the concept because it is “unconscious” B) Implementing structured decision‑making tools and regular bias‑awareness training C) Allowing managers to rely on intuition alone D) Avoiding all interpersonal interactions Answer: B Explanation: Structured tools and training raise awareness and reduce the impact of hidden biases. Question 32. Which communication method is most effective for delivering complex technical information to a non‑technical client? A) Using industry jargon exclusively B) Providing a concise summary with visual aids and plain language explanations C) Sending a lengthy PDF without follow‑up D) Speaking quickly to cover all details Answer: B Explanation: Plain language and visuals enhance comprehension for non‑technical audiences. Question 33. In a multicultural team meeting, a facilitator should: A) Speak only in English and ignore other languages B) Encourage each member to share perspectives and check for understanding across cultures C) Allow the dominant culture to set the agenda exclusively D) Avoid any discussion of cultural differences altogether Answer: B Explanation: Inclusive facilitation ensures all voices are heard and cultural nuances are addressed.
Question 37. A “hazardous manual task” in a workplace is defined as: A) Any task that involves lifting, carrying, or repetitive motion that could cause injury B. Only tasks that involve chemicals C) Tasks performed solely by machines D) Administrative paperwork Answer: A Explanation: Manual handling hazards include lifting, twisting, and repetitive motions that can lead to musculoskeletal injuries. Question 38. The “hierarchy of controls” prioritizes which of the following as the most effective risk‑control method? A) Personal protective equipment (PPE) B) Administrative procedures C) Engineering controls D) Elimination of the hazard Answer: D Explanation: Removing the hazard entirely is the most effective way to protect workers. Question 39. When documenting a client’s consent, the record must include: A) Only the client’s signature B) The date, description of the procedure, risks discussed, and the client’s signature or verbal acknowledgment C) The practitioner’s personal notes only D) The cost of the service Answer: B Explanation: Comprehensive consent documentation ensures legal and ethical compliance.
Question 40. Which of the following is a key component of a “duty of care” in health‑service delivery? A) Ignoring client complaints to maintain workflow B) Providing services that meet accepted professional standards to avoid foreseeable harm C) Delegating all responsibilities to interns D) Prioritizing speed over safety Answer: B Explanation: Duty of care obligates practitioners to act with reasonable care to prevent injury. Question 41. In the context of privacy, “data minimisation” means: A) Collecting as much data as possible for future use B) Limiting data collection to only what is necessary for the intended purpose C) Storing data indefinitely D) Sharing all collected data with third parties Answer: B Explanation: Minimisation reduces privacy risk by limiting unnecessary information. Question 42. A “conflict of interest” arises when: A) A practitioner receives a gift that could influence professional judgment B) The client signs a consent form C) The practitioner follows the Code of Ethics D) The practitioner works overtime Answer: A Explanation: Gifts or relationships that could bias decisions create a conflict of interest. Question 43. Which of the following best describes “cultural humility”?
B) A signed consent form detailing procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives C) An email reminder about the appointment D) A copy of the practitioner’s license Answer: B Explanation: A signed, detailed consent form provides legal evidence of informed agreement. Question 47. The “right to be forgotten” under privacy legislation allows individuals to: A) Request deletion of their personal data when it is no longer necessary for the purpose collected B. Keep all data permanently stored C) Access others’ personal information D) Transfer all data to a public domain Answer: A Explanation: This right enables individuals to have irrelevant personal data erased. Question 48. In a multi‑disciplinary team, the most effective way to avoid role duplication is to: A) Have each member perform all tasks independently B) Develop a clear scope‑of‑practice matrix outlining responsibilities C) Let senior staff decide all tasks without documentation D) Rotate tasks randomly each week Answer: B Explanation: A scope‑of‑practice matrix clarifies duties and prevents overlap. Question 49. Which of the following is an example of a “reasonable accommodation” for an employee with a hearing impairment? A) Ignoring the employee’s request for assistance
B) Providing a sign‑language interpreter for meetings C) Reducing the employee’s workload without justification D) Reassigning the employee to a different department without consultation Answer: B Explanation: An interpreter enables the employee to fully participate, meeting legal obligations. Question 50. The “five‑rights” of medication administration include: A. Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time B) Right patient, right doctor, right pharmacy, right insurance, right cost C) Right drug, right temperature, right color, right brand, right expiry D) Right nurse, right shift, right chart, right signature, right room Answer: A Explanation: These five rights prevent medication errors. Question 51. When a client discloses a potential safety risk, the practitioner should: A) Document the information and report it according to the organization’s risk‑management protocol B) Keep the information confidential and do nothing C) Ignore it if it does not affect the current session D) Share it on social media for awareness Answer: A Explanation: Proper documentation and reporting protect both client and public safety. Question 52. In the context of digital security, “two‑factor authentication” (2FA) means: A) Using one password for all systems B) Requiring a password plus a second verification method (e.g., SMS code)
Answer: B Explanation: Ethical fading occurs when moral considerations become invisible over time. Question 56. The “right to access” under privacy legislation allows individuals to: A) View and obtain a copy of their personal information held by an organization B. Delete all records of themselves automatically C) Access any employee’s personal data D) Demand that the organization share data with third parties Answer: A Explanation: Access rights empower individuals to review their own data. Question 57. When conducting a risk assessment for a new piece of equipment, the first step is to: A) Purchase the equipment immediately B) Identify potential hazards associated with its use C) Train staff without evaluating risks D) Dispose of old equipment Answer: B Explanation: Hazard identification precedes evaluation and control. Question 58. Which of the following is a key feature of the “principle of autonomy” in client care? A) Making all decisions for the client B) Respecting the client’s right to make informed choices about their own care C) Ignoring the client’s preferences D) Prioritizing cost over client wishes Answer: B
Explanation: Autonomy emphasizes self‑determination and informed consent. Question 59. A “privacy impact assessment” (PIA) is performed to: A) Evaluate the financial profitability of a project B) Identify and mitigate privacy risks before implementing a new system or process C. Determine staffing levels D) Assess building safety codes Answer: B Explanation: PIAs help ensure new initiatives comply with privacy obligations. Question 60. In the event of a data breach involving client health records, the immediate priority should be to: A. Notify the affected individuals and the appropriate regulator as required by law B) Delete the records to hide the breach C) Wait until the end of the fiscal year to report it D) Publish the breach details publicly without verification Answer: A Explanation: Prompt notification is mandated to allow affected parties to take protective actions. Question 61. Which of the following best describes “cultural safety” in the health‑care context? A) Providing the same treatment to everyone regardless of background B) Ensuring that health‑care delivery does not diminish the cultural identity or wellbeing of the client C) Requiring clients to adopt the practitioner’s cultural norms D) Avoiding any discussion of culture during consultations
