Download NWCA Organizational Behavior Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Question 1. Which of the following disciplines does NOT traditionally contribute to the study of Organizational Behavior (OB)? A) Psychology B) Sociology C) Anthropology D) Astrophysics Answer: D Explanation: OB draws from psychology, sociology, and anthropology; astrophysics is unrelated. Question 2. In OB research, a study that gathers numerical data to test a hypothesis about employee turnover is using which method? A) Qualitative B) Quantitative C) Mixed‑methods D) Ethnographic Answer: B Explanation: Quantitative research involves statistical analysis of numerical data. Question 3. Which trend most directly increases the need for cultural intelligence in modern workplaces? A) Automation of routine tasks B) Globalization of markets C) Reduction of work hours D) Standardization of job titles Answer: B Explanation: Globalization brings together employees from diverse cultures, requiring cultural intelligence.
Question 4. The concept of “triple bottom line” in organizational ethics refers to which three performance dimensions? A) Profit, productivity, promotion B) People, planet, profit C) Power, politics, policy D) Process, product, price Answer: B Explanation: Triple bottom line emphasizes social (people), environmental (planet), and economic (profit) responsibilities. Question 5. The Big Five personality trait most closely associated with a willingness to take risks and seek new experiences is: A) Conscientiousness B) Openness to Experience C) Extraversion D) Agreeableness Answer: B Explanation: Openness reflects creativity, curiosity, and a preference for novelty. Question 6. According to the Myers‑Briggs Type Indicator, a person who prefers “Thinking” over “Feeling” is likely to make decisions based primarily on: A) Personal values B) Objective criteria C) Social harmony D) Intuition about future trends Answer: B
Explanation: Likert-type scales produce interval data, allowing meaningful distance between points. Question 10. Research shows that high job satisfaction is most strongly correlated with which outcome? A) Increased absenteeism B) Lower turnover intention C) Decreased creativity D) Higher salary demands Answer: B Explanation: Satisfied employees are less likely to consider leaving the organization. Question 11. Emotional Intelligence (EQ) is defined as the ability to: A) Solve complex mathematical problems quickly B) Recognize, understand, and manage one’s own and others’ emotions C) Memorize large volumes of technical data D) Perform physical tasks under stress Answer: B Explanation: EQ involves perceiving, using, understanding, and managing emotions. Question 12. In Maslow’s hierarchy, which need must be satisfied before “esteem” needs become salient? A) Physiological B) Safety C) Love/Belonging D) Self‑actualization Answer: C
Explanation: Maslow’s order: physiological → safety → love/belonging → esteem → self‑actualization. Question 13. Herzberg’s Two‑Factor Theory classifies “recognition” as a: A) Hygiene factor B) Motivator C) Job demand D) Personal trait Answer: B Explanation: Recognition is a motivator that leads to higher satisfaction when present. Question 14. According to McGregor, managers who assume employees dislike work and need close supervision are practicing: A) Theory X B) Theory Y C) Theory Z D) Theory W Answer: A Explanation: Theory X reflects a pessimistic view of employee motivation. Question 15. Which statement best captures Self‑Determination Theory (SDT)? A) Motivation is driven solely by external rewards. B) People are intrinsically motivated when autonomy, competence, and relatedness are satisfied. C. Employees need strict supervision to stay motivated. D. Motivation is unrelated to personal growth. Answer: B
Answer: C Explanation: High belief that effort leads to performance (expectancy), performance leads to outcomes (instrumentality), and outcomes are valued (valence) yields strong motivation. Question 19. Which reward system aligns most closely with “pay‑for‑performance” principles? A) Seniority‑based raises B) Profit‑sharing C) Fixed hourly wage D) Uniform bonuses for all staff Answer: B Explanation: Profit‑sharing links rewards directly to organizational results. Question 20. Job rotation is primarily used to: A) Increase specialization B) Reduce monotony and develop broader skill sets C) Decrease employee autonomy D) Lower training costs Answer: B Explanation: Rotating jobs diversifies experience and reduces boredom. Question 21. According to the Job Characteristics Model, which core job dimension is NOT included? A) Skill variety B) Task identity C) Autonomy D) Compensation level
Answer: D Explanation: The JCM includes skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback; compensation is external. Question 22. The “forming” stage of group development is characterized by: A) High conflict and competition B) Clarification of roles and norms C) Uncertainty and polite behavior D) Dissolution of the group Answer: C Explanation: In forming, members are tentative and courteous as they get acquainted. Question 23. Which of the following best describes “norms” in a group context? A) Formal written policies B) Unwritten expectations about behavior C) Individual personality traits D) Organizational hierarchy Answer: B Explanation: Norms are shared, informal standards guiding group members’ conduct. Question 24. A team with high “cohesiveness” is likely to experience: A) Lower productivity due to groupthink B) Higher satisfaction and commitment C) Increased turnover D) Greater role ambiguity Answer: B
Question 28. Which factor most strongly predicts a group’s “performance” according to the Input‑Process‑Output model? A. Group size B. Diversity of members C. Quality of communication processes D. Physical workspace design Answer: C Explanation: Effective communication processes (coordination, conflict management) drive performance. Question 29. The “adjourning” stage of group development is most associated with: A. Conflict escalation B. Task completion and dissolution C. Role clarification D. Goal setting Answer: B Explanation: Adjourning involves wrapping up and disbanding the group. Question 30. Which of the following is a “status” characteristic of a group member? A. Personality type B. Formal job title C. Level of education D. Length of service in the organization Answer: B Explanation: Status often derives from formal titles or positions within the group.
Question 31. The “halo effect” can lead to which bias in performance appraisal? A. Rating all employees equally B. Overrating an employee because of one outstanding attribute C. Ignoring positive behaviors D. Focusing exclusively on recent events Answer: B Explanation: Halo effect causes a single positive trait to color overall judgments. Question 32. Which research design provides the strongest evidence for causality in OB studies? A. Cross‑sectional survey B. Longitudinal case study C. Experimental field study with random assignment D. Correlational analysis Answer: C Explanation: Randomized experiments control variables, establishing cause‑effect relationships. Question 33. The “social identity theory” suggests that individuals define themselves primarily by: A. Personal achievements B. Membership in groups C. Biological traits D. Cognitive abilities Answer: B Explanation: Social identity derives from group affiliations. Question 34. In the context of ethical decision‑making, “utilitarianism” focuses on:
Question 37. Which personality assessment is most directly linked to predicting job performance across many occupations? A. Myers‑Briggs Type Indicator B. The Big Five Inventory (BFI) C. Enneagram D. DISC profile Answer: B Explanation: The Big Five traits, especially conscientiousness, reliably predict performance. Question 38. A “learning organization” is characterized by: A. Rigid hierarchies and fixed procedures B. Continuous improvement and knowledge sharing C. Isolated departments with no communication D. Emphasis on short‑term profit only Answer: B Explanation: Learning organizations foster ongoing development and collective learning. Question 39. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a “mixed‑methods” research approach in OB? A. Eliminates the need for statistical analysis B. Provides both numerical depth and contextual richness C. Guarantees causal inference D. Reduces research costs significantly Answer: B Explanation: Mixed‑methods combine quantitative rigor with qualitative insight.
Question 40. In the “job characteristics model,” high “task significance” is likely to increase which outcome? A. Turnover intention B. Intrinsic motivation C. Salary expectations D. Physical fatigue Answer: B Explanation: When employees perceive their work as meaningful, intrinsic motivation rises. Question 41. Which of the following best describes “instrumentality” in Expectancy Theory? A. Belief that effort leads to performance B. Belief that performance leads to rewards C. Value placed on the reward D. Perceived fairness of the reward system Answer: B Explanation: Instrumentality is the perceived link between performance and outcomes. Question 42. A manager who uses “participative decision‑making” is most likely to enhance which employee attitude? A. Job dissatisfaction B. Organizational cynicism C. Commitment D. Role ambiguity Answer: C Explanation: Involving employees in decisions fosters ownership and commitment.
A. The tendency to perform better when observed B. Higher expectations leading to higher performance C. The decline in performance after a promotion D. The influence of peer pressure on conformity Answer: B Explanation: Positive expectations from leaders can enhance subordinate performance. Question 47. Which factor is most likely to increase “groupthink” in a cohesive team? A. Encouraging dissenting opinions B. High external pressure to reach consensus quickly C. Diverse expertise among members D. Structured decision‑making processes Answer: B Explanation: Pressure for unanimity can suppress critical evaluation, leading to groupthink. Question 48. In a “360‑degree feedback” system, feedback is gathered from: A. Only the employee’s supervisor B. The employee, peers, subordinates, and sometimes customers C. External market analysts D. The organization’s board of directors Answer: B Explanation: 360‑degree feedback incorporates multiple perspectives. Question 49. Which of the following is an example of a “situational factor” influencing attribution? A. Personality traits
B. Recent training received C. Current mood of the observer D. Work environment constraints Answer: D Explanation: Situational factors are external conditions affecting behavior. Question 50. A “learning style” that favors visual information would most likely benefit from: A. Audio recordings only B. Hands‑on simulations C. Diagrams and charts D. Group discussions Answer: C Explanation: Visual learners process information best through images and graphics. Question 51. Which of the following best describes “psychological contract” breaches? A. Violation of formal employment contracts B. Failure to meet unwritten mutual expectations C. Legal disputes over salary D. Changes in organizational hierarchy Answer: B Explanation: Psychological contracts involve perceived promises; breaches erode trust. Question 52. In the “competency model,” which element refers to the underlying motives that drive behavior? A. Knowledge B. Skills
C. Competition D. Avoidance Answer: C Explanation: Competition emphasizes assertiveness over relationship concerns. Question 56. According to the “Social Learning Theory,” employees learn new behaviors primarily through: A. Genetic inheritance B. Direct reinforcement only C. Observing and modeling others D. Random trial and error Answer: C Explanation: Modeling and imitation are central to social learning. Question 57. The “job demands‑resources” (JD‑R) model predicts that high job demands paired with low resources will lead to: A. Increased engagement B. Higher burnout risk C. Greater job satisfaction D. Improved performance Answer: B Explanation: Imbalance of high demands and insufficient resources fuels burnout. Question 58. Which of the following best illustrates “procedural justice”? A. Fairness of the outcome received B. Transparency and consistency of decision‑making processes C. Equality of pay across all employees
D. Personal relationships influencing promotions Answer: B Explanation: Procedural justice concerns the fairness of the methods used. Question 59. In the context of “diversity management,” “inclusion” refers to: A. Hiring only minority candidates B. Ensuring all employees feel valued and can contribute fully C. Maintaining a homogeneous workforce D. Segregating teams by demographic groups Answer: B Explanation: Inclusion creates an environment where diverse perspectives are leveraged. Question 60. Which of the following is a “latent” variable often measured in organizational surveys? A. Number of training hours B. Employee turnover rate C. Organizational commitment D. Salary level Answer: C Explanation: Latent constructs like commitment are not directly observable and require measurement scales. Question 61. A manager who sets specific, time‑bound objectives for employees is applying which motivational principle? A. Reinforcement theory B. Goal‑setting theory C. Equity theory
