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Question 1.Which conflict resolution technique is most appropriate when team members have equally important but opposing objectives? A) Forcing B) Smoothing C) Compromising D) Collaborating Answer: C Explanation: Compromising seeks a mutually acceptable solution that partially satisfies both parties when each has equally important concerns. Question 2.Identifying the stage of conflict where parties are still exploring the issue but have not yet taken positions is called: A) Latent B) Emergence C) Escalation D) Resolution Answer: B Explanation: The emergence stage is when the conflict becomes apparent and parties begin to discuss the disagreement. Question 3.In servant leadership, the primary focus of the leader is: A) Maximizing profit B) Controlling resources C) Serving the needs of team members D) Enforcing strict processes Answer: C
Explanation: Servant leaders prioritize the growth, well‑being, and empowerment of their team members above personal authority. Question 4.What component of a team charter defines how decisions will be made? A) Vision statement B) Ground rules C) Decision‑making protocol D) Communication plan Answer: C Explanation: The decision‑making protocol explicitly outlines the method (e.g., consensus, majority vote) for team decisions. Question 5.A project manager wants to empower a senior developer to approve minor changes without consulting the sponsor. This is an example of: A) Delegating authority B) Micromanaging C) Centralizing control D) Scope creep Answer: A Explanation: Delegating authority gives the developer the discretion to make defined decisions, fostering empowerment. Question 6.Which KPI would best measure a software development team’s ability to meet schedule commitments? A) Cost variance (CV) B) Schedule performance index (SPI) C) Defect density
C) Printed newsletters D) Automated status reports Answer: B Explanation: Video conferencing with screen sharing enables immediate visual feedback and discussion across time zones. Question 10.In a virtual team, which practice most effectively builds trust? A) Daily mandatory video calls B) Strictly written communication only C) Randomly assigning tasks without explanation D) Providing clear role definitions and transparent updates Answer: D Explanation: Transparency and clear expectations reduce ambiguity and foster trust in remote settings. Question 11.The Project Charter primarily provides: A) Detailed activity schedules B) Formal authorization to begin the project C) Procurement contracts D) Risk mitigation strategies Answer: B Explanation: The charter formally authorizes the project, defines objectives, and identifies the project manager. Question 12.What is the purpose of integrated change control? A) To reject all change requests B) To evaluate, approve, or defer changes in a coordinated manner
C) To update the project schedule only D) To assign changes to the lowest‑cost vendor Answer: B Explanation: Integrated change control ensures that all changes are assessed for impact before approval and implementation. Question 13.During project closure, “lessons learned” are documented to: A) Assign blame for failures B) Provide data for future project improvement C) Increase project costs D) Satisfy regulatory auditors only Answer: B Explanation: Capturing lessons learned creates organizational knowledge that can improve future projects. Question 14.In scope management, the primary difference between a Product Backlog and a Scope Statement is: A) The Product Backlog is static, the Scope Statement is dynamic B) The Product Backlog lists functional requirements, the Scope Statement defines deliverables and boundaries C) The Product Backlog is used only in Waterfall, the Scope Statement only in Agile D) There is no difference; they are interchangeable Answer: B Explanation: Agile uses a Product Backlog for user‑story level requirements, while the Scope Statement outlines overall project boundaries and deliverables. Question 15.What technique is used to break the project scope into manageable components?
Question 18.Which estimating technique uses historical data from similar projects to forecast activity durations? A) Bottom‑up estimating B) Parametric estimating C) Three‑point estimating D) Analogous estimating Answer: D Explanation: Analogous estimating relies on past project data to infer durations for similar activities. Question 19.The Critical Path Method identifies: A) The longest sequence of activities with zero float B) The cheapest resources for each activity C) All possible project schedules simultaneously D. The most risky activities only Answer: A Explanation: The critical path is the longest path through the network, determining the shortest possible project duration. Question 20.In Earned Value Management, a Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.85 indicates: A) The project is under budget B) The project is over budget C) The project is ahead of schedule D) The project has zero variance Answer: B Explanation: CPI = EV/AC; a value less than 1 means actual costs exceed earned value, indicating cost overrun.
Question 21.An SPI (Schedule Performance Index) greater than 1 indicates: A) The project is behind schedule B) The project is ahead of schedule C) The project is over budget D) The project has no schedule variance Answer: B Explanation: SPI = EV/PV; values above 1 mean earned value exceeds planned value, showing schedule progress ahead of plan. Question 22.Qualitative risk analysis primarily uses: A) Monte Carlo simulation B) Decision tree analysis C) Probability and impact matrix D) Regression analysis Answer: C Explanation: A probability‑impact matrix categorizes risks based on their likelihood and effect, supporting prioritization. Question 23.Which risk response strategy involves assigning ownership of a risk to a third party? A) Mitigate B) Transfer C) Accept D) Exploit Answer: B Explanation: Transfer shifts the impact or responsibility for a risk to another entity, such as an insurer or subcontractor.
Question 27.The most appropriate engagement strategy for a high‑influence, low‑interest stakeholder is: A) Keep satisfied B) Manage closely C) Monitor only D. Keep informed Answer: A Explanation: High‑influence, low‑interest stakeholders should be kept satisfied to prevent them from becoming dissatisfied. Question 28.Which compliance consideration is most relevant for a project developing medical‑device software? A) GDPR data‑privacy B) ISO 9001 quality management C) FDA 21 CFR Part 820 (QSR) D. OSHA workplace safety Answer: C Explanation: FDA’s Quality System Regulation governs design and manufacturing of medical devices, including software. Question 29.The primary purpose of a benefits realization plan is to: A) List all project costs B) Track the achievement of expected business value after project completion C. Define the project schedule D. Assign resources to tasks Answer: B
Explanation: Benefits realization ensures that projected advantages are measured and achieved post‑implementation. Question 30.Assessing organizational culture before a project begins helps to: A) Determine the exact project budget B) Predict resistance to change and tailor communication strategies C. Choose the software development tool D. Set the critical path Answer: B Explanation: Understanding culture reveals potential barriers and informs how to manage change effectively. Question 31.After project delivery, the transition from “current state” to “future state” is facilitated by: A. Scope creep B. Change management activities and training C. Earned value analysis D. Risk avoidance Answer: B Explanation: Change management prepares stakeholders, provides training, and ensures adoption of new processes. Question 32.A Lean principle that eliminates activities that do not add value is called: A. Kaizen B. Six Sigma C. Waste reduction (Muda) D. Value stream mapping
Explanation: Gantt charts display tasks, durations, and relationships, providing a timeline view. Question 36.What does a risk register typically include? A. Only high‑impact risks B. Risk descriptions, probability, impact, owner, and response plans C. Project budget breakdowns D. Team member contact information Answer: B Explanation: The register documents each identified risk and its associated attributes and mitigation actions. Question 37.In Agile Scrum, the artifact that represents the work to be done in a sprint is the: A. Product backlog B. Sprint backlog C. Increment D. Definition of Done Answer: B Explanation: The sprint backlog contains the selected product backlog items and the plan for delivering them in the sprint. Question 38.What is the purpose of a Definition of Done (DoD) in Agile projects? A. To list all project risks B. To set the criteria that a product increment must meet before it can be considered complete C. To assign resources to tasks D. To define the project budget Answer: B
Explanation: DoD ensures consistent quality and shared understanding of completion across the team. Question 39.A Kanban board primarily helps teams to: A. Estimate project costs B. Visualize workflow, limit work‑in‑process, and improve flow efficiency C. Conduct stakeholder analysis D. Perform earned value calculations Answer: B Explanation: Kanban visualizes tasks, enforces WIP limits, and promotes continuous improvement. Question 40.When a project manager uses “forcing” as a conflict resolution technique, they are: A. Seeking a win‑win solution B. Imposing a solution regardless of others’ opinions C. Ignoring the conflict entirely D. Finding a middle ground Answer: B Explanation: Forcing (or competing) involves asserting one’s position and may cause resentment if not used judiciously. Question 41.The Tuckman model’s “performing” stage is characterized by: A. Conflict and confusion B. High dependence on the leader C. Self‑organized, high‑productivity teamwork D. Disbanding of the team Answer: C
Explanation: Positive reinforcement and development opportunities sustain high performance and morale. Question 45.Which KPI would best indicate the effectiveness of a knowledge‑transfer program? A. Number of defects per release B. Percentage of team members who achieve competency certifications after training C. Project schedule variance D. Cost performance index Answer: B Explanation: Tracking competency certification rates shows whether knowledge transfer goals are being met. Question 46.When managing a globally distributed team, the best practice for scheduling meetings across time zones is to: A. Always schedule at the sponsor’s local time B. Rotate meeting times to share inconvenience fairly C. Use only asynchronous communication D. Require all members to work night shifts Answer: B Explanation: Rotating times distributes the burden of inconvenient hours among all participants. Question 47.What is the main risk of using only email for virtual team collaboration? A. Too much face‑to‑face interaction B. Delayed feedback and lack of real‑time clarification C. Over‑reliance on video equipment D. Excessive use of project management software Answer: B
Explanation: Email can lead to misunderstandings and slower response times compared with real‑time tools. Question 48.In a matrix organization, the project manager’s authority is typically: A. Full functional authority over all resources B. Limited, requiring negotiation with functional managers C. Non‑existent; the sponsor makes all decisions D. Absolute control of the budget only Answer: B Explanation: Matrix structures share authority, so the project manager must negotiate resource allocation. Question 49.The “rolling wave” planning technique is most appropriate when: A. All activities are fully defined at project start B. Detailed planning is needed only for near‑term work, with later phases refined later C. The project has a fixed budget and schedule D. The project follows a strict Waterfall methodology Answer: B Explanation: Rolling wave planning allows progressive elaboration of future work as more information becomes available. Question 50.What does the term “scope baseline” refer to? A. The original project schedule B. The approved version of the scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary C. The final cost estimate D. The risk register after mitigation Answer: B
Explanation: Exposure (or expected monetary value) multiplies likelihood by consequence. Question 54.What is the main advantage of a “time‑boxed” iteration in Agile? A. Guarantees that all features will be completed B. Provides a fixed duration for delivering a potentially shippable increment, promoting predictability C. Eliminates the need for a product backlog D. Allows unlimited scope within the iteration Answer: B Explanation: Time‑boxing sets a firm time limit, ensuring regular delivery cycles. Question 55.The “three‑point estimate” uses which three values? A. Optimistic, most likely, pessimistic B. Minimum, maximum, average C. Best case, worst case, expected D. Early, on‑time, late Answer: A Explanation: The three‑point technique applies O‑M‑P values to calculate an expected estimate. Question 56.Which of the following is a leading indicator of project health? A. Final cost variance after project close B. Number of change requests submitted in the last month C. Earned value trends (CPI, SPI) during execution D. Post‑project stakeholder satisfaction survey results Answer: C Explanation: Ongoing CPI and SPI trends provide early warnings of cost or schedule issues.
Question 57.When a project sponsor requests a change that will increase scope, the project manager should first: A. Immediately implement the change to please the sponsor B. Reject the change without discussion C. Evaluate the impact on schedule, cost, and quality, then follow integrated change control D. Transfer the decision to the functional manager Answer: C Explanation: Proper impact analysis and formal change control are required before approving scope changes. Question 58.In the context of procurement, a “single‑source” strategy is chosen when: A. Competition is desired to lower price B. The supplier has unique capabilities or technology essential to the project C. Multiple vendors can provide identical items D. The project budget is unlimited Answer: B Explanation: Single‑source procurement is used when only one vendor can meet critical requirements. Question 59.The “Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix” helps to: A. Determine the critical path B. Track the current vs. desired engagement level for each stakeholder C. Allocate project funds D. Schedule daily stand‑up meetings Answer: B
