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Question 1. Which step of the RACE fire‑safety acronym involves activating the building’s fire alarm system? A) Rescue B) Alarm C) Confine D) Extinguish Answer: B Explanation: “Alarm” is the second step of RACE and requires notifying the fire department and evacuating occupants by sounding the alarm. Question 2. When using a portable fire extinguisher, the “S” in PASS stands for: A) Spray B) Sweep C) Shutoff D) Secure Answer: B Explanation: “Sweep” means moving the extinguisher’s nozzle side‑to‑side at the base of the fire after the agent has been discharged. Question 3. The most common cause of electrical hazards in patient care areas is: A) Over‑loading outlets B) Using battery‑powered devices C) Ground‑fault circuit interrupters D) Low‑voltage lighting Answer: A Explanation: Plugging too many devices into a single outlet can cause overheating and arc‑flash incidents.
Question 4. A frayed power cord on an infusion pump should be: A) Wrapped with tape and continued to use B) Reported to maintenance and taken out of service C) Ignored if the pump still works D) Re‑plugged into a different outlet Answer: B Explanation: Frayed cords are a fire and shock risk and must be removed from service immediately. Question 5. Which document provides information on the hazards and safe handling of a chemical used for surface disinfection? A) Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) B) Patient Care Plan C) Infection Control Manual D) Facility Maintenance Log Answer: A Explanation: The SDS (formerly MSDS) outlines chemical hazards, PPE requirements, and spill procedures. Question 6. A spill of a disinfectant in a patient room should be cleaned using: A) A dry mop B) The designated spill kit and PPE C) A handheld vacuum D) No action; the disinfectant evaporates Answer: B
Explanation: The five moments are before patient contact, before aseptic task, after body fluid exposure risk, after patient contact, and after contact with patient surroundings. Question 10. Which type of precaution is required for a patient with confirmed Clostridioides difficile infection? A) Airborne B) Droplet C) Contact D) Standard only Answer: C Explanation: C. diff is transmitted via spores that survive on surfaces; contact precautions with dedicated equipment are needed. Question 11. When caring for a patient with influenza, the appropriate transmission‑based precaution is: A) Contact only B) Droplet only C) Airborne only D) No special precaution needed Answer: B Explanation: Influenza spreads via large respiratory droplets; droplet precautions (mask within 6 feet) are required. Question 12. N95 respirators must be used for which precaution category? A) Contact B) Droplet C) Airborne
D) Standard Answer: C Explanation: N95 respirators filter ≥95 % of airborne particles and are required for airborne pathogens like TB and COVID‑19. Question 13. Disinfecting a patient‑room surface after a routine cleaning is different from sterilizing because: A) Disinfection kills all microorganisms, sterilization only reduces numbers B) Sterilization requires chemicals, disinfection uses heat only C) Disinfection reduces microbial load to a safe level; sterilization eliminates all forms of microbial life D) There is no difference; the terms are interchangeable Answer: C Explanation: Disinfection is a high‑level cleaning process; sterilization is a process that destroys all microorganisms, including spores. Question 14. Which container is appropriate for disposal of used sharps? A) Red biohazard bag B) Yellow recycling bin C) Puncture‑resistant sharps container D) Regular trash can Answer: C Explanation: Sharps must be placed in FDA‑approved, puncture‑resistant containers to prevent needlestick injuries. Question 15. A red bag in a hospital setting is used for: A) General waste
B) Lowering ambient noise to ≤35 dB to promote sleep C) Eliminating all conversation D) Turning off all equipment sounds Answer: B Explanation: The Quiet Zone aims to keep noise levels low enough to support patient rest and healing. Question 19. Circadian‑rhythm lighting in a patient room is designed to: A) Keep lights on 24 hours for safety B) Provide bright light during the day and dim light at night to support sleep‑wake cycles C) Use only blue‑light LEDs D) Eliminate any natural light sources Answer: B Explanation: Adjusting light intensity mimics day‑night cycles, helping regulate patients’ circadian rhythms. Question 20. The primary purpose of a patient‑room curtain barrier is to: A) Reduce noise transmission B) Provide a visual privacy screen between beds C) Support temperature control D) Hold medical equipment Answer: B Explanation: Curtains create a visual barrier to maintain patient privacy. Question 21. Which of the following is the safest way to store a wheelchair when not in use? A) In the hallway, blocking the exit
B) Against a wall with wheels locked and brakes engaged C) On top of a bedside table D) In an open closet without securing it Answer: B Explanation: Securing the wheelchair prevents it from rolling and keeps egress routes clear. Question 22. When positioning an oxygen tank in a patient room, it must be stored: A) Near a heat source for efficiency B) In a well‑ventilated area away from open flames C) Inside a locked cabinet with the valve open D) Directly under the patient’s bed Answer: B Explanation: Oxygen supports combustion; it must be kept away from ignition sources and in a ventilated space. Question 23. A kinked oxygen tubing should be: A) Cut and replaced with a new segment B) Straightened carefully and inspected for damage C) Ignored if the flow rate appears unchanged D) Wrapped with tape to prevent future kinks Answer: B Explanation: Kinks impede flow; straightening restores patency, but the tubing should be inspected for damage before reuse. Question 24. Which monitoring device requires routine alarm‑silencing checks to ensure proper function? A) Thermometer
C) Family members discuss care at the bedside D) The patient’s chart is stored on a locked computer Answer: A Explanation: Exposing protected health information (PHI) to unauthorized viewers breaches HIPAA. Question 28. Professional boundaries are compromised when a nurse: A) Provides emotional support within the scope of practice B) Uses therapeutic touch only after patient consent C) Shares personal contact information with a patient for non‑clinical matters D) Explains medication side effects clearly Answer: C Explanation: Sharing personal contact details blurs professional lines and may lead to dual relationships. Question 29. According to patient‑rights standards, a patient is entitled to: A) A noisy environment to stay alert B) A clean, safe, and dignified room at all times C) Unlimited visitors regardless of infection status D) Removal of all safety equipment Answer: B Explanation: Patients have the right to a safe, clean environment that respects dignity. Question 30. In hospice care, the environment should be adjusted to: A) Increase bright lighting for safety B) Reduce stimuli, dim lights, and allow family presence C) Keep the call light disabled to promote rest
D) Remove all monitoring equipment Answer: B Explanation: A calm, low‑stimulus environment supports comfort and family involvement. Question 31. During a power outage, the first step to maintain patient safety is to: A) Turn off all bedside equipment immediately B) Ensure backup generators are operational and switch to them C) Evacuate all patients to a different floor D) Open all windows for ventilation Answer: B Explanation: Backup power restores life‑supporting equipment; confirming generator function is priority. Question 32. A water‑main break in the unit requires the nurse to: A) Continue using the sinks as normal B) Notify facilities, relocate patients if water damage is imminent, and use disposable wipes for hand hygiene C) Turn off all electronic devices D) Ignore the issue if no visible leak is present Answer: B Explanation: Immediate notification and patient relocation protect against contamination; disposable wipes substitute handwashing. Question 33. In the event of a loss of medical‑gas supply, the nurse should: A) Increase the oxygen flow on the existing tank to compensate B) Use a portable gas cylinder if available and notify the respiratory therapist C) Turn off all ventilators permanently
C) Promote wall‑mounted monitors over bedside devices D) Reduce the number of carts in patient rooms Answer: B Explanation: Keeping pathways clear allows safe and efficient movement during emergencies. Question 37. A patient’s call light is not responding. The nurse should first: A) Replace the entire call‑light system B) Check the battery pack or power source of the bedside unit C) Assume the patient does not need assistance D) Call maintenance without assessment Answer: B Explanation: Many bedside units have rechargeable batteries; checking the power source is the quickest troubleshooting step. Question 38. Which of the following is NOT a standard precaution for all patient interactions? A) Hand hygiene B) Use of gloves for all procedures C) Use of a gown when there is a risk of body fluid exposure D) Universal masking during a pandemic Answer: B Explanation: Gloves are required only when there is potential exposure to blood, body fluids, or contaminated surfaces, not for all interactions. Question 39. When a patient is placed in isolation for airborne precautions, the room must have: A) A sink with running water
B) Positive pressure ventilation C) Negative pressure ventilation and at least 12 air changes per hour D) A window that can be opened for fresh air Answer: C Explanation: Negative pressure prevents contaminated air from escaping; 12 ACH ensures adequate air turnover. Question 40. The correct order for donning personal protective equipment (PPE) is: A) Gown → Mask → Gloves → Goggles B) Mask → Gown → Goggles → Gloves C) Gloves → Gown → Mask → Goggles D) Mask → Goggles → Gown → Gloves Answer: B Explanation: The recommended sequence is mask (or respirator), gown, goggles/face shield, then gloves to ensure proper coverage. Question 41. A patient’s bedside table is cluttered with personal items, medications, and a water bottle. The safest action is to: A) Remove all items and place them in a locked cabinet B) Reorganize the table, keeping only essential items within arm’s reach and securing medications in a locked drawer C) Leave the table as is; patients prefer their belongings nearby D) Ask the patient to keep items on the floor to free up space Answer: B Explanation: Organizing reduces trip hazards while maintaining patient access to necessary items.
Question 45. When a patient’s wound dressing is removed, the nurse should: A) Dispose of the dressing in a regular trash bag B) Place it in a biohazard container and perform hand hygiene afterward C) Keep the dressing on the bedside table for later analysis D) Flush it down the toilet if it is small Answer: B Explanation: Dressings are considered contaminated; they must be placed in a biohazard container and hand hygiene performed. Question 46. Which of the following is an indicator that a patient’s room temperature is too low for comfort? A) Patient reports feeling “cold” and shivers B) The thermostat reads 68 °F (20 °C) C) The room has a window open slightly D) The patient’s skin is warm to the touch Answer: A Explanation: Subjective feeling of coldness indicates the environment may need adjustment. Question 47. To reduce noise from equipment alarms, a nurse should: A) Turn off all alarms during night shift B) Adjust alarm parameters to appropriate thresholds and ensure alarms are placed at the bedside, not on the floor C) Cover alarms with a blanket D) Ask patients to ignore alarms Answer: B Explanation: Proper alarm settings and placement reduce unnecessary noise while maintaining safety.
Question 48. When a patient’s personal belongings are stored in a bedside locker, privacy is protected because: A) The locker is locked with a key known only to staff B) The locker is located under the bed C) The contents are visible through a mesh window D) The locker is transparent for quick access Answer: A Explanation: Locking the locker prevents unauthorized viewing of personal items, protecting privacy. Question 49. A nurse notices a small crack in a bedside monitor’s screen. The appropriate action is to: A) Continue using the monitor and ignore the crack B) Report the defect to biomedical engineering and use an alternate monitor for the patient C) Tape over the crack and resume use D) Clean the crack with alcohol wipes Answer: B Explanation: Defective equipment can pose electrical or infection risks; it should be taken out of service. Question 50. The “Call Light Response Time” standard for most hospitals is: A) Within 2 minutes B) Within 5 minutes C) Within 10 minutes D) No specific standard exists Answer: B
D) Replace the button annually regardless of function Answer: A Explanation: Regular testing ensures the emergency system works when needed. Question 54. Which of the following is an example of a “secondary container” that must be labeled according to SDS requirements? A) A plastic cup used to mix medication B) A graduated cylinder holding a chemical for a single patient use C) A reusable spray bottle refilled with a disinfectant D) A disposable syringe Answer: C Explanation: When a primary container is placed into a secondary container, the secondary must bear the same hazard labeling. Question 55. A patient’s bedside monitor displays a “low battery” warning. The nurse should: A) Ignore it if the monitor is plugged into an outlet B) Replace the battery or connect the monitor to a power source immediately C) Turn off the monitor to conserve power D) Wait until the next shift change to address it Answer: B Explanation: A low‑battery warning indicates impending loss of monitoring; immediate action prevents interruption. Question 56. The “Five Moments” of hand hygiene includes “after contact with patient surroundings.” This refers to: A) Touching the patient’s skin directly
B) Contact with items such as bedside railings, bed linens, or medical equipment C) Performing a physical exam D) Administering medication intravenously Answer: B Explanation: Contact with the patient’s environment can transfer pathogens; hand hygiene after this contact is essential. Question 57. When a patient is placed on contact precautions, which of the following is required? A) A negative pressure room B) A dedicated stethoscope for that patient only C) Wearing a gown and gloves for any patient interaction D) No additional PPE beyond standard precautions Answer: C Explanation: Contact precautions mandate gown and gloves for any direct contact with the patient or their environment. Question 58. The correct method for disposing of a used oxygen tubing that has been contaminated with blood is to: A) Place it in a regular trash bag B) Discard it in a red biohazard bag C) Return it to the central supply for re‑processing D) Flush it down the sink Answer: B Explanation: Blood‑contaminated items are biohazardous and must be disposed of in red bags. Question 59. During a fire drill, the nurse should:
