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Question 1. What is the value of x in the equation 3x + 7 = 22? A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 Answer: B Explanation: Subtract 7 from both sides to get 3x = 15, then divide by 3 to find x =
Question 2. A ratio of 2:5 is equivalent to which of the following fractions? A) 5/ B) 2/ C) 1/ D) 3/ Answer: B Explanation: The ratio 2:5 means 2 parts to 5 parts, which is written as 2/5. Question 3. Which of the following is the area of a triangle with base 10 m and height 6 m? A) 30 m² B) 60 m²
C) 16 m² D) 36 m² Answer: A Explanation: Area = ½ × base × height = ½ × 10 × 6 = 30 m². Question 4. Convert 500 milliliters (mL) to liters (L). A) 0.05 L B) 0.5 L C) 5 L D) 50 L Answer: B Explanation: 1 L = 1000 mL, so 500 mL = 500/1000 = 0.5 L. Question 5. What is the mean of the following set of numbers: 3, 7, 8, 2, 10? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 Answer: B Explanation: Mean = (3+7+8+2+10)/5 = 30/5 = 6.
C) 2:
D) 3:
Answer: B Explanation: Probability = 0.2 = 1/5; odds against = 4 (not happen):1 (happen). Question 9. Which type of graph is best for showing the distribution of a categorical variable? A) Line graph B) Bar chart C) Scatter plot D) Pie chart Answer: B Explanation: Bar charts are best for comparing frequencies of categories. Question 10. Which organ system is primarily responsible for transporting oxygen throughout the body? A) Digestive B) Nervous C) Circulatory D) Skeletal Answer: C
Explanation: The circulatory system (heart, blood vessels) transports oxygen via blood. Question 11. Which microorganism is most commonly associated with food poisoning? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Candida albicans C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis Answer: A Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of food poisoning. Question 12. What is the SI unit of force? A) Joule B) Newton C) Pascal D) Watt Answer: B Explanation: The Newton (N) is the SI unit for force. Question 13. Which formula correctly expresses Newton’s second law of motion?
Answer: D Explanation: Gamma rays have the highest frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum. Question 16. What is the primary hazard associated with AC electrical current? A) Explosion B) Shock C) Noise D) Odor Answer: B Explanation: AC electrical current can cause electric shock, which is its primary hazard. Question 17. Which of these is a base in chemistry? A) HCl B) NaOH C) H₂SO₄ D) CO₂ Answer: B Explanation: NaOH (sodium hydroxide) is a strong base.
Question 18. What is the molecular weight of water (H₂O)? A) 10 B) 16 C) 18 D) 20 Answer: C Explanation: (2 × 1) for H + (16) for O = 18. Question 19. If a solution contains 5 grams of solute in 100 mL, what is the concentration in % w/v? A) 0.5% B) 5% C) 50% D) 0.05% Answer: B Explanation: % w/v = (grams of solute/volume in mL) × 100 = (5/100) × 100 = 5%. Question 20. Which rate is used to measure the frequency of workplace injuries per 200,000 hours worked? A) Lost Time Injury Rate B) Total Recordable Incident Rate
Question 23. Which of the following is a qualitative data collection method? A) Survey with open-ended questions B) Counting number of injuries C) Measuring noise levels D) Recording temperature Answer: A Explanation: Qualitative methods include open-ended surveys/interviews for non- numeric data. Question 24. Indirect costs of a workplace accident include: A) Medical expenses B) Lost productivity C) Workers’ compensation D) Equipment repair Answer: B Explanation: Indirect costs include lost productivity, retraining, and other hidden losses. Question 25. Which is NOT an element of an effective safety management system?
A) Management commitment B) Hazard identification C) Ignoring feedback D) Employee involvement Answer: C Explanation: Ignoring feedback undermines the effectiveness of a safety program. Question 26. A written policy statement in a safety program should: A) Be vague B) Be specific and clear C) Address only one hazard D) Be updated every 10 years Answer: B Explanation: Policy statements should be clear, specific, and regularly reviewed. Question 27. A “just culture” in safety programs refers to: A) Always blaming workers B) Balancing accountability and learning C) Ignoring near misses D) Punishing minor mistakes
Question 30. The first step in a qualitative risk assessment is: A) Implement controls B) Identify hazards C) Assign risk ratings D) Calculate probabilities Answer: B Explanation: Hazard identification is always the first step in risk assessment. Question 31. A risk matrix evaluates risk based on: A) Likelihood and severity B) Number of employees C) Cost of controls D) Amount of paperwork Answer: A Explanation: Risk matrices use likelihood and potential severity to prioritize risks. Question 32. Internal risks to a facility include: A) Weather events B) Employee error
C) Political instability D) Supply chain disruptions Answer: B Explanation: Internal risks originate within the organization, like employee errors. Question 33. A risk mitigation strategy that physically removes a hazard is called: A) Substitution B) PPE C) Elimination D) Administration Answer: C Explanation: Elimination removes the hazard completely, the most effective control. Question 34. Which is NOT a step in Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)? A) Breaking job into tasks B) Identifying hazards C) Ignoring risk controls D) Recommending control measures Answer: C
Question 37. Which regulation is most relevant to hazardous waste management in the US? A) OSHA B) RCRA C) ADA D) HIPAA Answer: B Explanation: RCRA (Resource Conservation and Recovery Act) governs hazardous waste. Question 38. Which is a key concept of process safety management? A) Managing office supplies B) Preventing catastrophic releases of hazardous chemicals C) Supervising lunch breaks D) Filing tax returns Answer: B Explanation: Process safety management aims to prevent major chemical accidents. Question 39. A principle of Behavior-Based Safety (BBS) is: A) Focusing on environment only
B) Observing and reinforcing safe behaviors C) Ignoring unsafe acts D) Eliminating all hazards Answer: B Explanation: BBS focuses on observation and reinforcement of safe behaviors. Question 40. Which is an effective feedback strategy in BBS? A) Public shaming B) Immediate, positive feedback C) Ignoring workers D) Delayed response Answer: B Explanation: Immediate and positive feedback encourages safe behavior. Question 41. A GHS pictogram with a flame symbol indicates: A) Corrosive material B) Flammable substance C) Explosive hazard D) Environmental hazard Answer: B
B) Hazard assessment C) Use what’s available D) Ask workers to guess Answer: B Explanation: PPE selection is based on a thorough hazard assessment. Question 45. Routine inspection of PPE ensures: A) Increased costs B) Proper function and protection C) PPE is never used D) Only new equipment is used Answer: B Explanation: Inspections ensure PPE is functional and protective. Question 46. Lockout/Tagout procedures are required for: A) Electrical hazards only B) All hazardous energy sources C) Office equipment D) Weather emergencies Answer: B
Explanation: Lockout/Tagout controls all forms of hazardous energy during maintenance. Question 47. The purpose of grounding in electrical safety is to: A) Increase voltage B) Provide a safe path for stray current C) Reduce wire costs D) Make circuits more complex Answer: B Explanation: Grounding provides a path for electrical current to reduce shock hazards. Question 48. A confined space is characterized by: A) Unlimited access B) Limited entry/exit and not designed for continuous occupancy C) High ceilings D) Always having windows Answer: B Explanation: Confined spaces have limited access and are not meant for regular occupancy.
