Download PEDS exam 1, peds exam 1, PEDS Exam I, Peds Exam 1, Peds exam 1, peds exam 1, Peds Exam On and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity!
PEDS exam 1, peds exam 1, PEDS Exam
I, Peds Exam 1, Peds exam 1, peds exam
1, Peds Exam One, Peds exam 1, peds
exam 1, PEDS EXAM 1, Peds Exam 1,
Peds Exam 1, Peds Exam 1
An infant gains head control before sitting unassisted. The nurse recognizes that this is which type of development? a. Cephalocaudal b. Proximodistal c. Mass to specific d. Sequential - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A The pattern of development that is head-to-tail, or cephalocaudal, direction is described by an infant's ability to gain head control before sitting unassisted. The head end of the organism develops first and is large and complex, whereas the lower end is smaller and simpler, and development takes place at a later time. Proximodistal, or near to far, is another pattern of development. Limb buds develop before fingers and toes. Postnatally, the child has control of the shoulder before achieving mastery of the hands. Mass to specific is not a specific pattern of development. In all dimensions of growth, a definite, sequential pattern is followed. Which refers to those times in an individual's life when he or she is more susceptible to positive or negative influences? a. Sensitive period b. Sequential period c. Terminal points d. Differentiation points - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A Sensitive periods are limited times during the process of growth when the organism will interact with a particular environment in a specific manner. These times make the organism more susceptible to positive or negative influences. The sequential
period, terminal points, and differentiation points are developmental times that do not make the organism more susceptible to environmental interaction. An infant who weighs 7 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at age 1 year? a. 14 b. 16 c. 18 d. 21 - correct answer ✔✔ANS: D In general, birth weight triples by the end of the first year of life. For an infant who was 7 pounds at birth, 21 pounds would be the anticipated weight at the first birthday; 14, 16, or 18 pounds is below what would be expected for an infant with a birth weight of 7 pounds. By what age does birth length usually double? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 4 years d. 6 years - correct answer ✔✔ANS: C Linear growth or height occurs almost entirely as a result of skeletal growth and is considered a stable measurement of general growth. On average, most children have doubled their birth length at age 4 years. One and 2 years are too young for doubling of length. Most children will have achieved the doubling by age 4 years. Parents of an 8-year-old child ask the nurse how many inches their child should grow each year. The nurse bases the answer on the knowledge that after age 7 years, school-age children usually grow what number of inches per year? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 - correct answer ✔✔ANS: B The growth velocity after age 7 years is approximately 5 cm (2 inches) per year.
self-centeredness, and preferring to play alone do not describe the concept of egocentricity. The nurse is observing parents playing with their 10-month-old child. Which should the nurse recognize as evidence that the child is developing object permanence? a. Looks for the toy that parents hide under the blanket b. Returns the blocks to the same spot on the table c. Recognizes that a ball of clay is the same when flattened out d. Bangs two cubes held in her hands - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A Object permanence is the realization that items that leave the visual field still exist. When the infant searches for the toy under the blanket, it is an indication that object permanence has developed. Returning the blocks to the same spot on the table is not an example of object permanence. Recognizing that a ball of clay is the same when flattened out is an example of conservation, which occurs during the concrete operations stage from 7 to 11 years. Banging two cubes together is a simple repetitive activity characteristic of developing a sense of cause and effect. A father tells the nurse that his child is "filling up the house with collections" like seashells, bottle caps, baseball cards, and pennies. What should the nurse recognize the child is developing? a. Object permanence b. Preoperational thinking c. Concrete operational thinking d. Ability to use abstract symbols - correct answer ✔✔ANS: C During concrete operations, children develop logical thought processes. They are able to classify, sort, order, and otherwise organize facts about the world. This ability fosters the child's ability to create collections. Object permanence is the realization that items that leave the visual field still exist. This is a task of infancy and does not contribute to collections. Preoperational thinking is concrete and tangible. Children in this age group cannot reason beyond the observable, and they lack the ability to make deductions or generalizations. Collections are not typical for this developmental level. The ability to use abstract symbols is a characteristic of formal operations, which develops during adolescence. These children can develop and test hypotheses.
A visitor arrives at a daycare center during lunchtime. The preschool children think that every time they have lunch a visitor will arrive. Which preoperational characteristic is being displayed? a. Egocentrism b. Transductive reasoning c. Intuitive reasoning d. Conservation - correct answer ✔✔ANS: B Transductive reasoning is when two events occur together, they cause each other. The expectation that every time lunch is served a visitor will arrive is descriptive of transductive reasoning. Egocentrism is the inability to see things from any perspective than their own. Intuitive reasoning (e.g., the stars have to go to bed just as they do) is predominantly egocentric thought. Conservation (able to realize that physical factors such as volume, weight, and number remain the same even though outward appearances are changed) does not occur until school age. Which behavior is most characteristic of the concrete operations stage of cognitive development? a. Progression from reflex activity to imitative behavior b. Inability to put oneself in another's place c. Increasingly logical and coherent thought processes d. Ability to think in abstract terms and draw logical conclusions - correct answer ✔✔ANS: C During the concrete operations stage of development, which occurs approximately between ages 7 and 11 years, increasingly logical and coherent thought processes occur. This is characterized by the child's ability to classify, sort, order, and organize facts to use in problem solving. The progression from reflex activity to imitative behavior is characteristic of the sensorimotor stage of development. The inability to put oneself in another's place is characteristic of the preoperational stage of development. The ability to think in abstract terms and draw logical conclusions is characteristic of the formal operations stage of development. According to Kohlberg, children develop moral reasoning as they mature. Which statement is most characteristic of a preschooler's stage of moral development? a. Obeying the rules of correct behavior is important. b. Showing respect for authority is important behavior. c. Behavior that pleases others is considered good.
In which type of play are children engaged in similar or identical activity, without organization, division of labor, or mutual goal? a. Solitary b. Parallel c. Associative d. Cooperative - correct answer ✔✔ANS: C In associative play, no group goal is present. Each child acts according to his or her own wishes. Although the children may be involved in similar activities, no organization, division of labor, leadership assignment, or mutual goal exists. Solitary play describes children playing alone with toys different from those used by other children in the same area. Parallel play describes children playing independently but being among other children. Cooperative play is organized. Children play in a group with other children who play in activities for a common goal. The nurse observes some children in the playroom. Which play situation exhibits the characteristics of parallel play? a. Kimberly and Amanda sharing clay to each make things b. Brian playing with his truck next to Kristina playing with her truck c. Adam playing a board game with Kyle, Steven, and Erich d. Danielle playing with a music box on her mother's lap - correct answer ✔✔ANS: B Playing with trucks next to each other but not together is an example of parallel play. Both children are engaged in similar activities in proximity to each other; however, they are each engaged in their own play. Sharing clay to make things is characteristic of associative play. Friends playing a board game together is characteristic of cooperative play. A child playing with something by herself on her mother's lap is an example of solitary play. A nurse is planning play activities for school-age children. Which type of a play activity should the nurse plan? a. Solitary b. Parallel c. Associative d. Cooperative - correct answer ✔✔ANS: D
School-age children engage in cooperative play where it is organized and interactive. Playing a game is a good example of cooperative play. Solitary play is appropriate for infants, parallel play is an activity appropriate for toddlers, and associative play is an activity appropriate for preschool-age children. Which following function of play is a major component of play at all ages? a. Creativity b. Socialization c. Intellectual development d. Sensorimotor activity - correct answer ✔✔ANS: D Sensorimotor activity is a major component of play at all ages. Active play is essential for muscle development and allows the release of surplus energy. Through sensorimotor play, children explore their physical world by using tactile, auditory, visual, and kinesthetic stimulation. Creativity, socialization, and intellectual development are each functions of play that are major components at different ages. Parents are asking the clinic nurse about an appropriate toy for their toddler. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Your child would enjoy playing a board game." b. "A toy your child can push or pull would help develop muscles." c. "An action figure toy would be a good choice." d. "A 25-piece puzzle would help your child develop recognition of shapes." - correct answer ✔✔ANS: B Toys should be appropriate for the child's age. A toddler would benefit from a toy he or she could push or pull. The child is too young for a board game, action figure, or 25-piece puzzle. Which is probably the single most important influence on growth at all stages of development? a. Nutrition b. Heredity c. Culture d. Environment - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A
A nurse is preparing to administer a Denver II. Which is a correct statement about the Denver II? (Select all that apply.) a. All items intersected by the age line should be administered. b. There is no correction for a child born preterm. c. The tool is an intelligence test. d. Toddlers and preschoolers should be prepared by presenting the test as a game. e. Presentation of the toys from the kit should be done one at a time. - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A, D, E To identify "cautions," all items intersected by the age line are administered. Toddlers and preschoolers should be tested by presenting the Denver II as a game. Because children are easily distracted, perform each item quickly and present only one toy from the kit at a time. Before beginning the screening, ask whether the child was born preterm and correctly calculate the adjusted age. Up to 24 months of age, allowances are made for preterm infants by subtracting the number of weeks of missed gestation from their present age and testing them at the adjusted age. Explain to the parents and child, if appropriate, that the screenings are not intelligence tests but rather are a method of showing what the child can do at a particular age.
- Place in order the sequence of cephalocaudal development that the nurse expects to find in the infant. Begin with the first development expected, sequencing to the final. Provide answers using lowercase letters separated by commas (e.g., a, b, c, d). a. Crawl b. Sit unsupported c. Lift head when prone d. Gain complete head control e. Walk - correct answer ✔✔ANS: c, d, b, a, e Which condition in a child should alert a nurse for increased fluid requirements? a. Fever b. Mechanical ventilation c. Congestive heart failure
d. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A Fever leads to great insensible fluid loss in young children because of increased body surface area relative to fluid volume. Respiratory rate influences insensible fluid loss and should be monitored in the mechanically ventilated child. Congestive heart failure is a case of fluid overload in children. Increased ICP does not lead to increased fluid requirements in children. Which type of dehydration is defined as "dehydration that occurs in conditions in which electrolyte and water deficits are present in approximately balanced proportion"? a. Isotonic dehydration b. Hypotonic dehydration c. Hypertonic dehydration d. All types of dehydration in infants and small children - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A Isotonic dehydration is the correct term for this definition and is the most frequent form of dehydration in children. Hypotonic dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit, leaving the serum hypotonic. Hypertonic dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss and is usually caused by a proportionately larger loss of water or a larger intake of electrolytes. This definition is specific to isotonic dehydration. A nurse is admitting an infant with dehydration caused from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss. Which type of dehydration is this infant experiencing? a. Isotonic b. Isosmotic c. Hypotonic d. Hypertonic - correct answer ✔✔ANS: D Hypertonic dehydration results from water loss in excess of electrolyte loss. This is the most dangerous type of dehydration. It is caused by feeding children fluids with high amounts of solute. Isotonic dehydration occurs in conditions in which electrolyte and water deficits are present in balanced proportion and is another term for isomotic dehydration. Hypotonic dehydration occurs when the electrolyte deficit exceeds the water deficit, leaving the serum hypotonic. An infant is brought to the emergency department with dehydration. Which physical assessment finding does the nurse expect?
c. "I will offer my child bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast for the next 48 hours." d. "I should have my child eat a normal diet with easily digested foods for the next 48 hours." - correct answer ✔✔ANS: D Easily digested foods such as cereals, cooked vegetables, and meats should be provided for the child. Early reintroduction of nutrients is desirable. Continued feeding or reintroduction of a regular diet has no adverse effects and actually lessens the severity and duration of the illness. Clear liquids and carbonated drinks have high carbohydrate content and few electrolytes. Caffeinated beverages should be avoided because caffeine is a mild diuretic. The BRAT diet has little nutritional value and is high in carbohydrates. A young child is brought to the emergency department with severe dehydration secondary to acute diarrhea and vomiting. What should therapeutic management of this child begin with? a. Intravenous (IV) fluids b. ORS c. Clear liquids, 1 to 2 ounces at a time d. Administration of antidiarrheal medication - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A In children with severe dehydration, IV fluids are initiated. ORS is acceptable therapy if the dehydration is not severe. Diarrhea is not managed by using clear liquids by mouth. These fluids have a high carbohydrate content, low electrolyte content, and high osmolality. Antidiarrheal medications are not recommended for the treatment of acute infectious diarrhea. Which therapeutic management treatment is implemented for children with Hirschsprung disease? a. Daily enemas b. Low-fiber diet c. Permanent colostomy d. Surgical removal of affected section of bowel - correct answer ✔✔ANS: D Most children with Hirschsprung disease require surgical rather than medical management. Surgery is done to remove the aganglionic portion of the bowel, relieve obstruction, and restore normal bowel motility and function of the internal anal sphincter. Preoperative management may include enemas and low-fiber, high- calorie, high-protein diet, until the child is physically ready for surgery. The colostomy that is created in Hirschsprung disease is usually temporary.
Enemas are ordered to empty the bowel preoperatively for a child with Hirschsprung disease. What enema solution should be used? a. Tap water b. Normal saline c. Oil retention d. Phosphate preparation - correct answer ✔✔ANS: B Isotonic solutions should be used in children. Saline is the solution of choice. Plain water is not used. This is a hypotonic solution and can cause rapid fluid shift, resulting in fluid overload. Oil-retention enemas will not achieve the "until clear" result. Phosphate enemas are not advised for children because of the harsh action of the ingredients. The osmotic effects of the phosphate enema can result in diarrhea, which can lead to metabolic acidosis. A 3-year-old child with Hirschsprung disease is hospitalized for surgery. A temporary colostomy will be necessary. The nurse should recognize that preparing this child psychologically is: a. not necessary because of child's age. b. not necessary because colostomy is temporary. c. necessary because it will be an adjustment. d. necessary because the child must deal with a negative body image. - correct answer ✔✔ANS: C The child's age dictates the type and extent of psychological preparation. When a colostomy is performed, the child who is at least preschool age is told about the procedure and what to expect in concrete terms, with the use of visual aids. It is necessary to prepare a 3-year-old child for procedures. The preschooler is not yet concerned with body image. The nurse is explaining to a parent how to care for a school-age child with vomiting associated with a viral illness. Which action should the nurse include? a. Avoid carbohydrate-containing liquids. b. Give nothing by mouth for 24 hours. c. Brush teeth or rinse mouth after vomiting. d. Give plain water until vomiting ceases for at least 24 hours. - correct answer ✔✔ANS: C
d. Abdominal pain that is most intense at McBurney point - correct answer ✔✔ANS: D Pain is the cardinal feature. It is initially generalized, usually periumbilical. The pain localizes to the right lower quadrant at McBurney point. Rebound tenderness is not a reliable sign and is extremely painful to the child. Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain that is relieved by eating are not signs of acute appendicitis. When caring for a child with probable appendicitis, the nurse should be alert to recognize that which condition or symptom is a sign of perforation? a. Bradycardia b. Anorexia c. Sudden relief from pain d. Decreased abdominal distention - correct answer ✔✔ANS: C Signs of peritonitis, in addition to fever, include sudden relief from pain after perforation. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a manifestation of peritonitis. Anorexia is already a clinical manifestation of appendicitis. Abdominal distention usually increases. The nurse is caring for a child admitted with acute abdominal pain and possible appendicitis. Which is appropriate to relieve the abdominal discomfort? a. Place in Trendelenburg position. b. Allow to assume position of comfort. c. Apply moist heat to the abdomen. d. Administer a saline enema to cleanse bowel. - correct answer ✔✔ANS: B The child should be allowed to take a position of comfort, usually with the legs flexed. The Trendelenburg position will not help with the discomfort. In any instance in which appendicitis is a possibility, there is a danger in administering a laxative or enemas or applying heat to the area. Such measures stimulate bowel motility and increase the risk of perforation. A nurse is admitting a child with Crohn disease. Parents ask the nurse, "How is this disease different from ulcerative colitis?" Which statement should the nurse make when answering this question? a. "With Crohn disease the inflammatory process involves the whole GI tract." b. "There is no difference between the two diseases."
c. "The inflammation with Crohn disease is limited to the colon and rectum." d. "Ulcerative colitis is characterized by skip lesions." - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A The chronic inflammatory process of Crohn disease involves any part of the GI tract from the mouth to the anus but most often affects the terminal ileum. Crohn disease involves all layers of the bowel wall in a discontinuous fashion, meaning that between areas of intact mucosa, there are areas of affected mucosa (skip lesions). The inflammation found with ulcerative colitis is limited to the colon and rectum, with the distal colon and rectum the most severely affected. Inflammation affects the mucosa and submucosa and involves continuous segments along the length of the bowel with varying degrees of ulceration, bleeding, and edema. Which is used to treat moderate to severe inflammatory bowel disease? a. Antacids b. Antibiotics c. Corticosteroids d. Antidiarrheal medications - correct answer ✔✔ANS: C Corticosteroids, such as prednisone and prednisolone, are used in short bursts to suppress the inflammatory response in inflammatory bowel disease. Antacids and antidiarrheal medications are not drugs of choice in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease. Antibiotics may be used as an adjunctive therapy to treat complications. Why are bismuth subsalicylate, clarithromycin, and metronidazole prescribed for a child with a peptic ulcer? a. Eradicate Helicobacter pylori b. Coat gastric mucosa c. Treat epigastric pain d. Reduce gastric acid production - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A The drug therapy combination of bismuth subsalicylate, clarithromycin, and metronidazole is effective in the treatment of H. pylori and is prescribed to eradicate it. A newborn was admitted to the nursery with a complete bilateral cleft lip and palate. The physician explained the plan of therapy and its expected good results. However, the mother refuses to see or hold her baby. What is the initial therapeutic approach for the mother? a. Restating what the physician has told her about plastic surgery.
Because breastfeeding can usually be accomplished, gavage feedings are not indicated. The suction required to stimulate milk, absent initially, may be useful before nursing to stimulate the let-down reflex. The nurse is caring for an infant whose cleft lip was repaired. What important aspects of this infant's postoperative care should be included? a. Arm restraints, postural drainage, mouth irrigations b. Cleansing the suture line, supine and side-lying positions, arm restraints c. Mouth irrigations, prone position, cleansing the suture line d. Supine and side-lying positions, postural drainage, arm restraints - correct answer ✔✔ANS: B The suture line should be cleansed gently after feeding. The child should be positioned on the back, on the side, or in an infant seat. Elbows are restrained to prevent the child from accessing the operative site. Postural drainage is not indicated. This would increase the pressure on the operative site when the child is placed in different positions. There is no reason to perform mouth irrigations, and the child should not be placed in the prone position where injury to the suture site can occur. During the first few days after surgery for cleft lip, which intervention should the nurse do? a. Leave infant in crib at all times to prevent suture strain. b. Keep infant heavily sedated to prevent suture strain. c. Remove restraints periodically to cuddle infant. d. Alternate position from prone to side-lying to supine. - correct answer ✔✔ANS: C Remove restraints periodically, while supervising the infant, to allow him or her to exercise arms and to provide cuddling and tactile stimulation. The infant should not be left in the crib, but should be removed for appropriate holding and stimulation. Analgesia and sedation are administered for pain. Heavy sedation is not indicated. The child should not be placed in the prone position. The nurse is caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula. What nursing care should be included? a. Elevate the head but give nothing by mouth. b. Elevate the head for feedings. c. Feed glucose water only.
d. Avoid suctioning unless infant is cyanotic. - correct answer ✔✔ANS: A When a newborn is suspected of having a tracheoesophageal fistula, the most desirable position is supine with the head elevated on an inclined plane of at least 30 degrees. It is imperative that any source of aspiration be removed at once; oral feedings are withheld. Feedings should not be given to infants suspected of having tracheoesophageal fistulas. The oral pharynx should be kept clear of secretion by oral suctioning. This is to prevent the cyanosis that is usually the result of laryngospasm caused by overflow of saliva into the larynx. What is the best description of pyloric stenosis? a. Dilation of the pylorus b. Hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle c. Hypotonicity of the pyloric muscle d. Reduction of tone in the pyloric muscle - correct answer ✔✔ANS: B Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis occurs when the circumferential muscle of the pyloric sphincter becomes thickened, resulting in elongation and narrowing of the pyloric channel. Dilation of the pylorus, hypotonicity of the pyloric muscle, and reduction of tone in the pyloric muscle are not the definition of pyloric stenosis. Which observation made of the exposed abdomen is most indicative of pyloric stenosis? a. Abdominal rigidity b. Substernal retraction c. Palpable olive-like mass d. Marked distention of lower abdomen - correct answer ✔✔ANS: C The diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is often made after the history and physical examination. The olive-like mass is easily palpated when the stomach is empty, the infant is quiet, and the abdominal muscles are relaxed. Abdominal rigidity and substernal retraction are usually not present. The upper abdomen, not lower abdomen, is distended. The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis? a. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation b. Rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds
