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Penn Foster Veterinary Pharmacology Final Exam
Questions with Answers
1. Distinguish between hormonal, endocrine, and reproductive drugs:
2. Describe how drugs affect the nervous system: Drugs attect the nervous system by acting at the synaptic junctions to promote neurotransmitter's
activity, mimic their actions, or block them from acting.
3. Identify examples of respiratory drugs: Expectorants, mucolytics, antitussives, bronchodilators, decongestants
4. List which drugs are used to relieve pain and inflammation: NSAIDs, Opioids, Antihis- tamines, muscle relaxers, steroids, nerve
blocks
5. Summarize the difference between ophthalmic and otic drugs:
6. Compare and contrast cardiovascular and gastrointestinal drugs:
7. Describe how antiparasitic drugs work: Antiparasitic drugs work by destroying parasites or inhibiting their growth. Most work by
interfering with the parasite's nervous system to prevent them from moving.
8. Discuss why replacement drugs are often necessary for animal health:
9. Explain the veterinary technician's role in inventory control: keeping the statt informed regarding discontinued items, knowing the dates
on which backordered items will be released from the vendor, packing up goods awaiting return to the vendor (e.g., expired items), rotating stock correctly, maintaining current prices on all products, organizing inventory for ease of location and counting, receiving and inspecting orders on arrival at the veterinary facility, and learning about new products.
10. Define: Agonist: Drug that has aflnity for a receptor/stimulates receptor into action
11. Define: Contraindication: A reason not to use a drug in a particular situation
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12. Define: Efficacy: the degree to which a drug produces its desired response.
13. Define: Over-the-counter drug: One that may be purchased without prescription from a veterinarian
14. Define: Prescription Drug: One that must be used under the supervision of a veterinarina
15. Define: Receptor: a group of specialized molecules on or in a cell that bind with a drug to produce an ettect
16. Define: Therapeutic Index: expresses the relationship between a drug's therapeutic and harmful ettects
17. Define: Withdrawl Time: Amount of time that must elapse between the end of drug therapy and elimination of that drug from patients
tissues or products
18. Define: Veterinarian-client-patient relationship: Relationship that must exist between the vet, the patient, and the owner before
prescription drugs can be dispensed.
19. List 4 sources of drugs used in Vet Med: Animal product, plant material, minerals, synthetic products
20. What are 4 components of a drug regimen?: Dose, route, frequency, and duration of administration.
21. Discuss the conditions that must be met before a valid veterinarian-client-pa- tient relationship can be shown to
exist: 1.vet must assume responsibility for making clinical judgments in relation to health of the animal.
2. Vet must have recently seen the animal and be acquainted with it's care.
3. Vet must be available for follow-up care of the animal
22. Discuss the responsibilities of a vet tech in the administration of drug or- ders: To carry out the vet's orders
correctly. should read the drug label three times to ensure proper drug is being administered and should take care to administer correct dose by correct route. Should be aware of the expected attects and potential adverse side ettects and be able to monitor the patient.
4 / 47 selling products
33. Describe the marketing of animal health products: Purchased from manufacturers, distributors, or generic mail order companies.
May be sold only one label to graduate veterinarians and under another as over-the-counter
34. all
FDA-approved veterinary drugs are listed in the publication entitled - : The Green Book
35. What is the purpose of FARAD?: Provides resources concerning the avoidance of drug residues in animals
36. Extralabel veterinary drug use was made legal (under prescribed circum- stances) by what act of
congress?: Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA)
37. Define Compounding: Diluting or combingin existing drugs
38. What are potential dangers of residues in animal products: May cause allergic reaction or neoplasia in people, may
cause the development of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria
39. List 3 classes of drug interactions: Pharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic, and pharmaceutic
40. Drug interaction can be anticipated when two drugs are given that are both
metabolized by the : Liver
41. Define: Ethical Product: one sold only through veterinarians as a policy of the manufacturer rather than by FDA requirement
42. Once a drug has been
biotransformed, it is called a : Metabolite
43. A reason to use a drug is a(n) : Indication
44. Diagnostic method of choosing a drug is based on all of the following except
a. Practical experience
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b. Assesment of the patient
c. Obtaining a history
d. Performing lab tests: A. Practical experience.
45. Define: extralabel: Using a drug in a way not specified by the label
46. Complex sequence of events that occurs after a drug is administered is called :
Pharmacokinetics
47. Parenteral drugs are administered : by injections.
48. The body's ability to change a drug chemically from the form in which it was administered into a form
that can be eliminated from the body is called : - Metabolism (biotransformation)
49. Degree to which a drug produces its desired response in a patient is called : eflcacy
50. An adverse drug reaction is always life-threatening. T/F?: False
51. List the six practices recommended by the AVMA for the safe disposal of unwanted drugs.:
1.Incinerate when possible
2. Send to landfill when incinerated
3. Never flush down drain or toilet
4. Maintain close inventory control
5. Follow state and federal guidelines
6. Educate clients on proper disposal techniques.
52. Name 4 common Drug Preparations: Drugs for oral administration, drugs for parenteral admin- istration, drugs for inhalation, and drugs
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63. Why should drugs be given by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before
administration?: The plastic syringe may absorb the drug, which may cause it to be less ettective
64. List 4 types of syringe tips that are available for use: luer-lock, slip-tip, eccentric, catheter tip
65. A tuberculin syringe holds up to mL of medication: 1
66. A(n) is an agent that produces superficial irritation that is intended to relieve some other
irritation: Counter irritant
67. What type of syringe is divided into units rather than mls?: insulin syringe
68. A(n) will usually separate after long periods of shelf life and must be shaken well before
use to provide a uniform dose: suspension
69. Which syringe is constructed in such a way that the needle screws onto the tip of the syringe?: Luer-
Lok tip
70. All of the following are sites for IV administration in small animals except
a. jugular vein
b. carotid artery
c. lateral saphenous vein
d. phalic vein: b. carotid artery
71. If an IV catheter is not used continuously it should be flushed with
he- parinized saline every to hours: 8,
72. Cerumen is a substance that is commonly found in what anatomic part of the body?: ear
73. Any patient
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74. IV tubing should be changed after a to hour
period.: 48, 72
75. When an intramuscular injection is given in the pelvic limb of a dog or cat, the
area near the nerve should be avoided.: sciatic
76. Describe the difference between an agonist and an opioid antagonist: An agonist is a drug that combines with a
receptor to bring about an action and an antagonist combines with a receptor to block the action.
77. Define: neurotransmitter: A neurotransmitter is a chemical substance released by a nerve ending at the synapse. It acts on the adjacent neuron
to stimulate, inhibit, or change its activity.
78. The area
of the brain that serves to relay information from the spinal cord and brainstem to the interpretation center in the cerebrum is the : Thalamus
79. Most CNS drugs act by or the effects of neurotransmitters.: Inter- rupting he generation or conduction of
nerve impulses; interfering with
80. What are the primary neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptors?: epinephrine and norepinephrine
81. List the four primary ways in which drugs affect the ANS.: mimicking neurotrans- mitters, interfering with
neurotransmitters release, blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors and interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters
82. List five indications for the use of cholinergic agents: Control vomiting, treat urinary retention, stimulate GI activity, treat
glaucoma and to aid in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
83. Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate, and aminopentamide are examples of what specific drug class?:
10 / 47 substances?: Some pentobar- bital agents have a red dye added to distinguish them from pentobarbital agents that may be used for anesthesia. They are easily identified as euthanasia agents and have less potential for abuse
94. All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their effects by altering
activity in the brain.: Neurotransmitter
95. Dissocia
tive agents such as ketamine and tiletamine may cause at the injection site: Burning
96. A hypnotic (anesthetic) known for its very short duration and white color is : Propofol
97. An
inhibitory neurotransmitter that is widely distributed in the brain is - : GABA
98. A benzodiazepine that s used as an antianxiety medication and as
an ap- petite stimulant in cats is : Diazepam
99. An example of a tricyclic antidepressant used in vet med for separation
anxiety in dogs is : Clomicalm
100. is used to treat old-dog dementia: Anipryl
101. The nervous system carries out activity
very rapidly by sending electric-like messages over a network of nerve fibers. The system works much more slowly by sending chemical messengers through the bloodstream to target structures.: endocrine
102. The nervouse system is under voluntary control: Somatic
103. the is the fundamental unit of the nervous system: neuron
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104. Axons carry electric-like messages (from) the nerve cell, and dendrites carry electric-like messages
(from) the nerve cell.: Away: toward
105. Neurotransmitters cannot be mimicked or blocked by the use of appropri- ate drugs, and that is why
patients with nervous system disorders do not have a very good prognosis. T/F?: False
106. the
ANS is that portion of the nervous system that controls body activities.: Unconscious
107. the neurotransmitter for cholinergic
sites is : acetylchoine
108. Epinephrine is
responsible for all of the following except
a. can cause an increase in metabolic rate
b. can cause an increase in heart rate and cardiac output
c. communication with stem cells in bone marrow
d. can constrict blood vessels in the skin.: c. communication with stem cells in bone marrow
109. Xylazine is antagonized by : Yohimbine
110. All of the following are
benzodiazepines except
a. yohimbine
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120. List three mechanisms that can cause smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles: Release of acetylcholine,
release of histamine, and blockade of beta 2-adrenergic receptors
121. List two bronchodilators that are beta2-adrenergic agonists: Epinephrine and Albuterol
122. The methylxanthines bring about bronchodilation by inhibiting what cellu- lar enzyme?: Phosphodiesterase
123. List two potential uses for antihistamines in veterinary medicine.: Treatment of insect bites and treatment of hives in
horses
124. What suffix is found at the end of many antihistamine names?: - amine
125. List two potential uses for Dopram.: Treatment of respiratory depression associated with anesthesia and stimulation of
respiration in newborn animals
126. What structures constitute the urinary system?: Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra
127. Name two drugs that are contraindicated in uremic patients.: Rompun and ketaset
128. Renal damage bay be categorized as ,
, or : Prerenal, renal, postrenal.
129. Explain how diuretics work: Diuretics work by removing excess extracellular fluid, by increasing urine volume and sodium excretion, and by
decreasing hypertension
130. What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics?-
: Potassium (K)
131. ACE inhibitors block the
conversion of angiotensin I to : Angiotensin II
132. Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which
assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of uroliths.: Struvite
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133. The renal cortex produces ; thus chronic renal failure can cause an
absolute or relative in its production.: Erythopoietin; decrease
134. Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretics?: Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium
135. Where is ADH secreted?: posterior pituitary gland
136. The ureters : Originate from the kidneys and connect with the urinary bladder
137. Persistently high blood pressure is known as: Hypertension
138. Diuretics are used to remove fluid.: Extracellular
139. Antidiuretic hormone is
normally secreted by the pituitary gland: - Postererior
140. What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics?-
: Potassium
141. Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the
formation of: uroliths
142. is a medical term for bloody urine: hematuria
143. What part of the kidney is responsible for the reabsorption, or the secretion, of certain substances?:
Tubules
144. Patients with renal failure are at a lesser anesthetic risk than patients with normal renal function
T/F: False
16 / 47 cardiac contractility, decreased heart rate, antiarrhythmic ettect, decreased signs of dyspnea Toxic= vomiting.
155. Catecholamines such as epinephrine are used in veterinary cardiology pri- marily for :
Stimulation of cardiac contraction in cardiac arrest
156. List five factors that may predispose the heart to arrhythmias: Conditions that cause hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, increased
levels of sensitivity to catecholamines, certain drugs such as digitalis, barbiturates, others, and cardiac trauma or disease.
157. List six categories of antiarrhythmic drugs and give an example of each.: Class IA- quinidine
Class IB- lidocaine Class IC- flecainide Class II- propranolol Class III- bretylium Class IV- diltiazem
158. List four vasodilator drugs and classify each as an arteriolar dilator, ven- odilator, or mixed.: Hydralazine- arteriolar,
nitroglycerin-venodilator, prozosin- combined, enalapril- com- bined
159. Why is Lasix sometimes called a loop diuretic?: it inhibits reabsorption of sodium in the loops of Henle
160. The use of many diuretics can lead to a dangerous loss of which electrolyte
: Potassium
161. List five ancillary methods of treatment for cardiovascular disease.: Bronchodi- lation, oxygen therapy, sedation, asprin,
centesis
162. is characterized by the rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell through channels, the slower
influx of calcium ions, and the outflow of potassium ions: Depolarization
163. The amount of blood that the heart is capable of pumping her minute is called : Cardiac output
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164. results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that sodium and water are
retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output.: Congestive Heart Failure
165. ACE causes the conversion of to .: angiotensin I to angiotensin
II
166. Nitroglycerin is supplied as an ointment. List the precautions that should be taken when applying.: Wear gloves,
rotate application sites, do not pet the animal at the application site, measure dosage in inches, contact vet if rash appears on application site
167. What diuretic is used most commonly in the treatment of heart failure?: Lasix (furosemide)
168. What is hypokalemia?: abnormally low potassium levels in the blood
169. What are the primary goals of the dietary management of heart disease?: -
Sodium restriction and maintenance of good body weight and condition.
170. List three effects of administration of catecholamines.: increased force of contraction, inscrease in blood preasure, elvated glucose
levels
171. The heart is a chambered pump that is responsible for moving blood through the vascular system: Four
172. is a faster-than-normal heart rate: tachycardia
173. When situations cause spontaneous depolarization of cardia muscles or abnormalities of the
conduction system, may occur: Arrhythmia
174. List the ways by which the cardiovascular system may increase its output during times of need, such as
during athletic performance or to compensate for cardiac disease.: Increasing stroke volume, increasing eflciency of the heart muscle, physiologic heart enlargement
175. CHS is associated with all of the following except:
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186. The CRTZ simulates vomiting when activated by: Chemical substances (digitalis com- pounds, urea, ketone bodies, and
others)
187. List two examples of centrally acting emetics and two examples of periph- erally acting emetics.: Centrally
acting= Apomorphine and xylazine. Peripherally acting= syrup of ipecac and mustard
188. Drugs that inhibit vomiting are called :
antiemetics
189. H2 Receptor antagonists promote the healing of GI ulcers by: Reducing the secretion of hydrochloric acid by
gastric mucosal cells by binding to H2 receptors
190. List two H2 receptor antagonists.: cimetidine, ranitidine
191. What are the two types of intestinal motility patterns?: Peristalsis (wave of contraction), segmentation (mixing action)
192. Acute vomiting and diarrhea in dogs and cats often respond to conservative management such as: Witholding
food for 12 to 24 hours
193. List two species that do not vomit: rats and horses
194. What is the mechanism of action of saline/hyperosmotic laxatives?: Retaining water osmotically in the gut. Cause
softening of the stool.
195. What is the active ingredient of Metamucil?: psyllium
196. Direct cholinergic drugs stimulate the GI tract by what mechanism?: My mimicking the ettect pf
acetylcholine
197. A synthetic antibiotic/anti-
20 / 47 inflammatory agent used to treat giardiasis and anaerobic bacterial infection in animals is called : Metronidazole
198. List four products that used as a dentifrice/oral cleansing agents: C.E.T, nolvadent, oral Dent, Oxydent
199. what is the difference between peristalsis and segmentation?: Peristalsis-Wave on contraction that moves contents along
Segmentation- intestinal contractions that mix contents
200. Stimulation of the parasympathetic portion of the ANS decreases intestinal motility T/F: False
201. About what percent of the stomach's contents do emetics usually remove?-
202. How does sucralfate work to treat/prevent gastric ulcers?: By forming a paste-like barrier over the surface of gastric ulcers
203. bismuth subsalicylate compounds should be used with caution in what species?: Felines
204. List basic functions of the GI system.: Intake food and fluid into the body, absorption of nutrients and fluids, excretion of waste products.
205. What species has no gallbladder?: Equines
206. Ruminants remasticate food to facilitate the digestion process. T/F: True
207. the crop in birds is used for : food storage
208. List the parts of the small intestine: jejunum, ileum, duodenum
209. Apomorphine is : an emetic
210. Cimetidine is : H2 receptor antagonist
211. are substances that loosen bowel contents and encourage their evac- uation: Laxatives.
212. Mg sulfate is found in : Epsom salts
213. Viokase-V powder is -: a digestive enzyme and approved for use in dogs and cats
