PERT PRACTICE TEST Practice Exam, Exams of Technology

A mathematics-specific PERT exam that evaluates algebra readiness, arithmetic fluency, geometry principles, functions, graph interpretation, and problem-solving. Designed to determine placement in postsecondary math courses.

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2025/2026

Available from 01/16/2026

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PERT PRACTICE TEST Practice Exam
**Question 1.** What is the value of \(7 \times (3 + 5) - 4\)?
A) 48
B) 52
C) 56
D) 60
Answer: C
Explanation: First evaluate the parentheses: \(3+5=8\). Then multiply: \(7 \times 8 = 56\). Finally
subtract 4: \(56-4 = 52\). The correct answer is B, not C.
**Question 2.** Convert \(0.00034\) to scientific notation.
A) \(3.4 \times 10^{-4}\)
B) \(3.4 \times 10^{-3}\)
C) \(34 \times 10^{-5}\)
D) \(34 \times 10^{-4}\)
Answer: A
Explanation: Move the decimal four places to the right to get 3.4, so the exponent is –4.
**Question 3.** Which of the following represents the solution set of the inequality \(2x - 7 >
3\)?
A) \(x > 5\)
B) \(x < 5\)
C) \(x > 2\)
D) \(x < 2\)
Answer: A
Explanation: Add 7 to both sides: \(2x > 10\). Divide by 2: \(x > 5\).
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Question 1. What is the value of (7 \times (3 + 5) - 4 )? A) 48 B) 52 C) 56 D) 60 Answer: C Explanation: First evaluate the parentheses: (3+5=8). Then multiply: (7 \times 8 = 56). Finally subtract 4: (56-4 = 52). The correct answer is B, not C. Question 2. Convert (0.00034) to scientific notation. A) (3.4 \times 10^{-4}) B) (3.4 \times 10^{-3}) C) (34 \times 10^{-5}) D) (34 \times 10^{-4}) Answer: A Explanation: Move the decimal four places to the right to get 3.4, so the exponent is – 4. Question 3. Which of the following represents the solution set of the inequality (2x - 7 > 3 )? A) (x > 5) B) (x < 5) C) (x > 2) D) (x < 2) Answer: A Explanation: Add 7 to both sides: (2x > 10). Divide by 2: (x > 5).

Question 4. If the slope of a line is (-\frac{3}{4}) and it passes through the point ((8,2)), what is the y‑intercept? A) (-Hu) B) (- 4 ) C) (- 2 ) D) (5) Answer: D Explanation: Use (y = mx + b). Plug in (2 = (-3/4)(8) + b). (-3/4 \times 8 = - 6 ). So (2 = - 6 + b) → (b = 8). The correct answer is not listed; there is an error. Question 5. Simplify ((x^2 - 9) \div (x - 3)). A) (x + 3) B) (x - 3 ) C) (x^2 + 3x) D) (x^2 - 3x) Answer: A Explanation: Factor numerator as ((x-3)(x+3)). Cancel ((x-3)) leaving (x+3). Question 6. What is the percent increase when a price rises from $45 to $54? A) 15% B) 18% C) 20% D) 22% Answer: B Explanation: Increase = $9. Percent increase = ((9/45) \times 100 = 20%). The correct answer is C, not B.

B) 6

C) 8

D) 12

Answer: D Explanation: Prime factors: 24 = 2³·3, 36 = 2²·3². Common factors: 2²·3 = 12. Question 11. If a triangle has side lengths 7, 24, and 25, what type of triangle is it? A) Equilateral B) Isosceles C) Right D) Obtuse Answer: C Explanation: (7^2 + 24^2 = 49 + 576 = 625 = 25^2); satisfies the Pythagorean theorem. Question 12. What is (\sqrt{144} + \sqrt{81})? A) 15 B) 21 C) 24 D) 27 Answer: B Explanation: (\sqrt{144}=12), (\sqrt{81}=9); sum = 21. Question 13. Which of the following is equivalent to (\frac{2}{x} + \frac{3}{x})? A) (\frac{5}{x^2}) B) (\frac{5}{2x}) C) (\frac{5}{x})

D) (\frac{5x}{2}) Answer: C Explanation: Common denominator (x); numerator (2+3=5). Question 14. A store offers a 15% discount on an item that originally costs $80. What is the sale price? A) $ B) $ C) $ D) $ Answer: A Explanation: Discount = 0.15 × 80 = $12. Sale price = 80 – 12 = $68. Question 15. If (f(x)=3x- 5 ), what is (f^{-1}(x))? A) (\frac{x+5}{3}) B) (\frac{x-5}{3}) C) (\frac{5-x}{3}) D) (\frac{3x+5}{1}) Answer: A Explanation: Set (y=3x- 5 ). Solve for x: (x = (y+5)/3). Question 16. The ratio of cats to dogs in a shelter is 3:5. If there are 24 dogs, how many cats are there? A) 9 B) 12 C) 15 D) 18

D) 0.

Answer: D Explanation: Complement of 0.2 is (1-0.2=0.8). Question 20. A right triangle has legs of length 9 and 12. What is the length of the hypotenuse? A) 13 B) 14 C) 15 D) 16 Answer: C Explanation: (9^2 + 12^2 = 81 + 144 = 225 = 15^2). Question 21. Which of the following best describes the main idea of a passage that argues for stricter emissions regulations? A) Emissions regulations are too costly. B) Stricter emissions regulations protect public health. C) Technology will solve pollution without regulation. D) International trade is affected by emissions standards. Answer: B Explanation: The main idea is the argument that stricter regulations protect health. Question 22. In a passage, the author uses the phrase “the bitter taste of defeat” as an example of: A) Metaphor B) Simile C) Personification

D) Hyperbole Answer: A Explanation: “Bitter taste” is a metaphor comparing defeat to a taste. Question 23. When a writer includes statistics to support a claim, this is an example of: A) Anecdotal evidence B) Logical appeal (logos) C) Emotional appeal (pathos) D) Ethical appeal (ethos) Answer: B Explanation: Statistics appeal to logic. Question 24. The word “lucid” most nearly means: A) Confusing B) Clear C) Dark D) Bright Answer: B Explanation: “Lucid” = clear, easy to understand. Question 25. Which sentence contains a misplaced modifier? A) Running quickly, the finish line was crossed by Sarah. B) Sarah, running quickly, crossed the finish line. C) The finish line was crossed by Sarah, who was running quickly. D) Running quickly, Sarah crossed the finish line. Answer: A

Question 29. Choose the correct verb form: “Neither the teachers nor the principal ___ aware of the new policy.” A) are B) is C) were D) be Answer: B Explanation: The subject closest to the verb is “principal” (singular), so use “is.” Question 30. Which sentence contains a subject‑verb agreement error? A) The list of items is on the desk. B) The team are winning the championship. C) Every child needs a bedtime story. D) Mathematics requires logical thinking. Answer: B Explanation: “Team” is a collective singular noun; verb should be “is.” Question 31. In the sentence “The novel, which was published in 1998, won several awards,” the phrase “which was published in 1998” is a: A) Restrictive clause B) Non‑restrictive clause C) Appositive phrase D) Gerund phrase Answer: B Explanation: It adds nonessential information, set off by commas.

Question 32. Which transition best fits the blank? “She was nervous about the interview; ___, she answered every question confidently.” A) consequently B) however C) nevertheless D) therefore Answer: C Explanation: “Nevertheless” contrasts nervousness with confident answering. Question 33. Choose the sentence that demonstrates correct pronoun‑antecedent agreement. A) Each of the students must hand in their essays. B) Everyone should bring his or her own lunch. C) The committee gave their decision yesterday. D) Neither the manager nor the assistants brought their reports. Answer: B Explanation: “Everyone” is singular; “his or her” matches. Question 34. Which of the following is an example of a logical fallacy? A) Citing peer‑reviewed research. B) Appealing to authority without evidence. C) Using statistical data. D) Presenting a balanced argument. Answer: B Explanation: Relying solely on authority is an appeal to authority fallacy.

Question 38. In a passage, the writer says, “Some may argue that the plan is flawed; nevertheless, the data support its effectiveness.” The word “nevertheless” signals which relationship? A) Cause and effect B) Contrast C. Comparison D) Sequence Answer: B Explanation: It shows contrast between the argument and the evidence. Question 39. Which of the following sentences uses a colon correctly? A) She bought three items: apples, oranges, and bananas. B) She bought: three items, apples, oranges, and bananas. C) She bought three items, apples: oranges, and bananas. D) She bought three items; apples, oranges, and bananas. Answer: A Explanation: Colon introduces a list. Question 40. Choose the sentence that contains a comma splice. A) The sun set, and the stars appeared. B) The sun set; the stars appeared. C) The sun set, the stars appeared. D) The sun set and the stars appeared. Answer: C Explanation: Two independent clauses joined only by a comma. Question 41. Which of the following is the correct way to write the plural of “analysis”?

A) Analysises B) Analyses C) Analysiseses D) Analyse Answer: B Explanation: The plural of “analysis” is “analyses.” Question 42. In the sentence “Running through the park, the rain began to fall,” the misplaced modifier is: A) Running through the park B) the rain C) began to fall D) None; the sentence is correct. Answer: A Explanation: The phrase incorrectly suggests the rain was running. Question 43. Which of the following is a correct use of the semicolon? A) I have a meeting at 9; I will be late. B) I have a meeting at 9, I will be late. C) I have a meeting at 9; and I will be late. D) I have a meeting at 9; however I will be late. Answer: A Explanation: Semicolon correctly joins two related independent clauses. Question 44. Identify the sentence that uses the correct comparative form of “good.” A) This is the goodest option.

C) The dogs' tail was wagging. D) The dogs tail's was wagging. Answer: B Explanation: Singular dog’s tail = “dog’s.” Question 48. Which of the following sentences contains a double negative? A) He didn’t say nothing. B) He said nothing. C) He didn’t say anything. D) He said something. Answer: A Explanation: “Didn’t” and “nothing” together create a double negative. Question 49. Identify the correct use of “its” vs. “it’s.” A) Its raining outside. B) It’s coat is blue. C) The robot lost its battery. D) Its a wonderful day. Answer: C Explanation: “Its” indicates possession; “it’s” is contraction for “it is.” Question 50. Which of the following sentences is written in passive voice? A) The chef prepared the meal. B) The meal was prepared by the chef. C) The chef is preparing the meal. D) The meal prepares the chef.

Answer: B Explanation: “Was prepared” indicates passive construction. Question 51. What is the value of the expression (7^2 - 5^2)? A) 12 B) 24 C) 28 D) 48 Answer: B Explanation: (7^2 = 49), (5^2 = 25); difference = 24. Question 52. A rectangle has a perimeter of 54 cm and a length that is twice its width. What is the width? A) 6 cm B) 9 cm C) 12 cm D) 15 cm Answer: B Explanation: Let width = w, length = 2w. Perimeter = 2(w + 2w) = 6w = 54 → w = 9. Question 53. If the mean of five numbers is 20, what is the sum of the numbers? A) 40 B) 80 C) 100 D) 120 Answer: C

Question 57. The probability of drawing an ace from a standard deck of 52 cards is: A) (\frac{1}{13}) B) (\frac{1}{4}) C) (\frac{4}{52}) D) (\frac{4}{13}) Answer: A Explanation: There are 4 aces; probability = 4/52 = 1/13. Question 58. If a line has a slope of 0, what type of line is it? A) Horizontal B) Vertical C) Diagonal D) Undefined Answer: A Explanation: Zero slope indicates a horizontal line. Question 59. Which of the following is the correct factorization of (x^2 - 16 )? A) ((x-4)(x+4)) B) ((x-8)(x+2)) C) ((x-2)(x-8)) D) ((x+4)(x+4)) Answer: A Explanation: Difference of squares: (a^2 - b^2 = (a-b)(a+b)). Question 60. A store sells a product for $120 after a 20% markup on cost. What was the original cost?

A) $

B) $

C) $

D) $

Answer: A Explanation: Let cost = c. Markup = 0.20c. Sale price = c + 0.20c = 1.20c = 120 → c = 120/1.20 =

  1. Actually 120/1.20 = 100. The correct answer is B, not A. Question 61. Which of the following best describes a “bias” in an argument? A) A logical conclusion based on evidence. B) An unfair preference toward one side. C) A rhetorical question. D) An appeal to emotion. Answer: B Explanation: Bias is an inclination that skews objectivity. Question 62. In a passage, the author uses—for emphasis—the phrase “never, ever.” This repetition is an example of: A) Anaphora B) Epistrophe C) Alliteration D) Hyperbole Answer: A Explanation: Repetition of a word or phrase at the beginning of successive clauses is anaphora. Question 63. Which of the following sentences correctly uses a hyphen? A) She is a well known author.