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Pharm Final- Test Bank 2024 Questions & Answers
Typology: Exams
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A 28-year-old patient has been prescribed penicillin for the first time. What nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for this patient? A. Acute pain related to gastrointestinal (GI) effects of the drug B. Deficient knowledge regarding drug therapy C. Imbalance nutrition: less than body requirements related to multiple GI effects of the drug D. Constipation - ✔B. Because this is the first time the patient has taken penicillin, she is likely to have limited knowledge about the drug. She may not understand the importance of taking the medication as ordered to increase effectiveness of the drug or to report adverse effects. because the patient has not started the drug yet, there is no way to know what adverse effects, if any, she will experience. Only if she develops acute pain related to GI effects of the drug would this be appropriate. If GI symptoms develop it may lead to imbalanced nutrition, but that remains to be seen. No indication about constipation exists. he mother of a 5-year-old asks the nurse why it seems amoxicillin is always prescribed when her child needs an antibiotic. What is the priority rationale the nurse should give the mother? A) It is better absorbed. B) It is less costly. C) It has a less frequent dosing schedule. D) It tastes better in oral form. - ✔Ans: A Feedback: Most penicillins are rapidly absorbed from the GI tract, reaching peak levels in 1 hour. Although amoxicillin is less expensive, that fact has far less impact on choosing the proper antibiotic than the effectiveness of the drug. Most oral antibiotics for children are available in pleasant tasting syrups so taste would not be a factor. Ampicillin is often given up to 4 times a day so it actually has a frequent dosing schedule.
may be required. Yeast infections are very likely after taking ampicillin because it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Appearance of a rash should be evaluated by a health care professional because allergic reactions to this class of antibiotic are very common. A local bioterrorism medical team is learning about germ warfare. The team is instructed that a fluoroquinolone may be used to prevent an outbreak of anthrax infection. What fluoroquinolone would the nurse be most likely to administer for this purpose? A) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) B) Gemifloxacin (Factive) C) Norfloxacin (Noroxin) D) Sparfloxacin (Zagam) - ✔Ans: A Feedback: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is the most widely used fluoroquinolone and is indicated for the prevention of anthrax infection. Gemifloxacin and sparfloxacin are most useful in treating acute episodes of chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia. Norfloxacin is recommended only for certain types of urinary tract infections. The nurse is providing patient teaching before discharging a patient home. The patient is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro). What would the nurse teach this patient is the best way to prevent crystalluria caused by ciprofloxacin (Cipro)? A. Eliminate red meat and seafood from the diet. B. Encourage at least 2 liters of fluid per day. C. Avoid caffeine and alcohol. D. Spend time in the sun each day to optimize vitamin D levels. - ✔B. Encourage at least 2L of fluid per day Provide the following patient teaching: Avoid driving or operating dangerous machinery because dizziness, lethargy, and ataxia may occur; try to drink a lot of fluids and maintain nutrition (very important), even though nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea may occur. There is no need to eliminate red meat, seafood, caffeine, or alcohol from the diet, although alcohol may increase the risk of GI irritation. Patients should be taught to avoid the sun due to possible photosensitivity. What is the priority reason for the nurse to consider questioning an order for tetracycline in a child younger than 8 years of age? A. Children younger than 8 years of age cannot take tetracyclines. B. Weight-bearing joints have been impaired in young animals given the drugs. C. Tetracyclines can damage developing teeth and bone in children younger than 8 years of age. D. Liver and kidney function may be damaged when it is given to children under 8 years of age. - ✔ANS: C Use tetracyclines with caution in children younger than 8 years of age because they can potentially damage developing bones and teeth. Although the drug does not cause damage to liver and kidneys, it may be contraindicated in patients with hepatic or renal dysfunction because it is concentrated in the bile and excreted in the urine. Fluoroquinolones, not tetracyclines, are generally contraindicated for use in children (i.e., those younger than 18 years of age) because weight-bearing joints have been
A 78-year-old woman, who lives alone and is forgetful, is being seen by her home health nurse. In reviewing the patient's medication, the nurse discovers that the patient is taking Azithromycin (Zithromax) for urethritis. Why would this be a good choice of antibiotics for this patient? A) The half-life of the drug is 3 to 7 hours. B) It is taken only once a day. C) It has very few adverse effects. D) It can be given without consideration to drugdrug interactions. - ✔ANS: B A mother brings her 3-year-old child to the emergency department telling the nurse the child has eaten a bottle of baby aspirin. The mother cannot tell the nurse how many tablets were in the bottle. What dose of salicylate would be toxic in a child? A) 2g B) 3g C) 4g D) 5g - ✔ANS: C A patient arrives at the emergency department brought by his or her friends. The friends tell the nurse that the patient has taken a whole bottle of aspirin. Blood work for salicylate toxicity is run. What does the nurse expect the results to be? A) >5 g B) >10 g C) >15 g D) >20 g - ✔ANS: D Antipyretic drugs (e.g., aspirin, ibuprofen, acetaminophen) often are used to alleviate the discomforts of fever and to protect vulnerable organs, such as the brain, from extreme elevations in body temperature. However, the use of aspirin in children is limited due to the possibility of what disease? A) Munchausen's syndrome B) Guillain-Barré syndrome C) Angelman's syndrome D) Reye's syndrome - ✔AND: D A patient presents at the emergency department complaining of dizziness, mental confusion, and difficulty hearing. What should the nurse suspect is wrong with the patient? A) Anakinra toxicity B) Ibuprofen toxicity C) Salicylism D) Acetaminophen toxicity - ✔ANS: C The nurse is caring for a patient who reports taking 800 mg of ibuprofen three times a day for relief of menstrual cramps. What lab results will the nurse find most significant in assessing this patient? A) Complete blood count
B) White blood cell differential C) Arterial blood gas D) Cholesterol and triglyceride profile - ✔ANS: A When nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are combined with loop diuretics, there is a potential for what? A) Decreased antihypertensive effect B) Decreased diuretic effect C) Lithium toxicity D) Anaphylactoid reactions - ✔ANS: B A nurse is presenting an educational event for a group of new parents. One topic that the nurse addresses is the overuse of acetaminophen, which can cause liver toxicity. What would the nurse tell the parents it is important to do? A) Do not give acetaminophen (Tylenol) unless you receive a doctor's order. B) Check the label of over-the-counter (OTC) medications carefully to watch for inclusions of acetaminophen in the ingredients. C) Monitor their child's temperature carefully and regulate the Tylenol dose based on the fever. D) Mix OTC children's medications to get the best coverage for their child's symptoms. - ✔ANS: B A mother asks the nurse how acetaminophen works. What statement best describes the therapeutic action of acetaminophen? A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) works by blocking the increase of interleukin-1. B) Acetaminophen reacts with free-floating tumor necrosis (TNF) factor released by active leukocytes. C) Acetaminophen acts directly on the hypothalamus to cause vasodilation and sweating. D) Acetaminophen is taken up by macrophages, thus inhibiting phagocytosis and release of lysosomal enzymes. - ✔ANS: C A mother has brought her 6-year-old child to the clinic. The child has a fever of 102.8oF and is diagnosed with the flu. What medication will the nurse suggest for this child? A) Etanercept (Enbrel) B) Penicillamine (Depen) C) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) D) Aspirin (Bayer) - ✔ANS: C A patient explains to a nurse that he had been taking amitriptyline (Elavil) for depression and that his physician changed his medication to clomipramine (Anafranil). The patient is confused and does not understand why his medication was changed. The nurse's best response to the patient would be what? A) These drugs are similar but some patients respond better to one drug than another. B) Did you take the amitriptyline like you should have? C) Maybe the old medicine wasn't working anymore. D) Clomipramine is newer and will be much better for you. -
A patient has been taking Prozac (fluoxetine) for the past 3 years for depression. She is seeing her gynecologist for premenopausal symptoms and during the interview with the nurse she says that she would like to try Sarafem because her friend is taking it and she says it works great. The nurse's best response is what? A) Sarafem and Prozac are different brand names for the same generic medication. B) Before changing drugs it is important to consider how well you responded to Prozac. C) You cannot take both drugs at the same time so it will be important to decide which is best. D) When taking both of these drugs, it is best to take one in the morning and one at night. - ✔ANS: A The nurse evaluates the patient's serum phenytoin (Dilantin) level and determines the level is therapeutic when it is within what range? A) Between 5 and 12 mcg/mL B) Between 10 and 20 mcg/mL C) Between 15 and 50 mcg/mL D) Between 40 and 100 mcg/mL - ✔ANS: B A nurse is teaching a patient about his or her newly prescribed drug, phenytoin (Dilantin) for a seizure disorder. What will the nurse alert the patient to as a serious adverse effect of this drug? A) Drowsiness B) Fatigue C) Rash D) Lethargy - ✔ANS: C An 8-year-old child has been diagnosed with a seizure disorder and phenytoin (Dilantin) has been prescribed for him or her. What nursing diagnosis would be appropriate if the child demonstrated adverse effects to the drug? A) Deficient fluid volume B) Impaired skin integrity related to dermatological effects C) Noncompliance for drug therapy D) Sleep deprivation - ✔ANS: B A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe recurrent convulsive seizures. What drug would the nurse expect to be ordered for use in emergency control of status epilepticus? A) Phenytoin (Dilantin) B) Diazepam (Valium) C) Phenobarbital (Luminal) D) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) - ✔ANS: C A patient is brought into the emergency department in status epilepticus. The nurse administers phenobarbital 320 mg IV according to protocol. Family members ask the nurse how long it will take to stop the seizures. What is the nurse's best response? A) The onset of action for the medication is 5 minutes.
B) We should see results in about 10 minutes. C) It will probably take about 30 minutes before the seizures begin to subside. D) It may be an hour before the seizures stop. - ✔ANS: A A patient is brought to the emergency department in the midst of an active clonictonic seizure. What is the most appropriate antiseizure drug for the nurse to administer intravenously to terminate acute convulsive seizures? A) Diazepam (Valium) B) Phenytoin (Dilantin) C) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) D) Gabapentin (Neurontin) - ✔ANS: A A patient, newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder, has been prescribed valproic acid. What is one adverse effect of valproic acid that the nurse should include in the medication teaching plan? A) Liver toxicity B) Esophageal irritation C) Cardiac insufficiency D) Muscle weakness - ✔ANS: A A patient has a new order for carbamazepine (Tegretol). What does the nurse know is a contraindication to administration of carbamazepine? A) Bone marrow depression B) Bipolar disorder C) Allergy to sulfonamides D) Diabetes - ✔ANS: A The pharmacology instructor is discussing drugs used for the treatment of partial seizures. What accurately describes the physiological action of carbamazepine? A) Reduces electrical activity B) Alters sodium and calcium channels C) Increases gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) activity and blocks sodium and calcium channels to stop action potentials D) Depresses conduction in the brainstem and cortex - ✔ANS: C The drug of choice for the treatment of partial seizures is what? A. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) B. Clorazepate (Tranxene) C. Felbamate (Felbatol) D. Gabapentin (Neurontin) - ✔ANS: A A 20-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. What drug will most likely be prescribed? A) Baclofen (Lioresal) B) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) C) Metaxalone (Skelaxin) D) Orphenadrine (Banflex) - ✔ANS: A
B) Hepatitis C) Urinary retention D) Fatigue E) Rash - ✔ANS: B, D, E A patient with severe spasticity sees his physician. The physician orders dantrolene. In what circumstances is the drug dantrolene contraindicated? A) Spasticity that contributes to upright position B) Spasticity that involves both legs C) Spasticity that involves the arm and the leg on the same side D) Spasticity that contributes to mobility - ✔ANS: A A patient has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis and experiences spasticity in several muscle groups. What drug would the nurse anticipate will be ordered as the drug of choice to manage spasticity associated with neuromuscular diseases? A) Dantrolene (Dantrium) B) Baclofen (Lioresal) C) Carisoprodol (Soma) D) Botulinum toxin type B (Myobloc) - ✔ANS: A The nurse is caring for a patient taking dantrolene. How would the nurse assess the therapeutic effects of this drug? A) Observe the patient when emotionally stressed to assess for exacerbation of spasticity. B) Discontinue the drug for 2 to 4 days and assess for exacerbation of spasticity. C) Measure the amount of spasticity before and after administration of medication. D) Collect a thorough history to ask the patient any improvement has been noticed. - ✔ANS: B What drug would the nurse expect to administer to the patient experiencing malignant hyperthermia? A) Orphenadrine B) Metaxalone C) Chlorzoxazone D) Dantrolene - ✔ANS: D Which muscle relaxant was found to be embryotoxic in animal studies? A) Carisoprodol (Soma) B) Botulinum toxin A (Botox) C) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) D) Dantrolene (dantrium) - ✔ANS: D The nurse is administering morphine to a trauma patient for acute pain. Before administering the morphine, what common adverse effect should the nurse inform the patient about? A) Paresthesia in lower extremities B) Occipital headache
C) Increased intracranial pressure D) Drowsiness - ✔ANS: D The home care nurse administers oral morphine to the patient with cancer pain. When will the nurse expect this medication to reach peak activity? A) 10 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 45 minutes D) 60 minutes - ✔ANS: D The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing postoperative pain. The physician orders 2.5 mg of morphine IV every two hours. Morphine is supplied in 10 mg/mL vials. How many mL will the nurse administer? A) 0.25 mL B) 0.5 mL C) 1 mL D) 2 mL - ✔ANS: A The patient in labor receives morphine every 2 hours to manage labor pain. After 22 hours of labor the woman delivers a baby boy. What is the nurse's priority action related to the newborn? A) Monitor for opioid effects. B) Administer naloxone. C) Monitor for withdrawal syndrome. D) Assess for congenital anomaly. - ✔ANS: A A nurse is caring for a 6-year-old patient after surgery. The child has an order for meperidine (Demerol) 1.8 mg/kg IM every 3 to 4 hour as needed for pain. The child weighs 30 kg and the meperidine is available as 50 mg/mL. How many mL will the nurse administer per dose? A. 1 mL B. 1.8 mL C. 0.8 mL D. 1.08 mL - ✔ANS: D The health care provider orders oral (PO) codeine as an adjunctive therapy to pain control medication. What order would be appropriate for the nurse to administer? A) Codeine 5 mg PO every 6 hour B) Codeine 10 mg PO every 4 hour C) Codeine 15 mg PO every 2 hour D) Codeine 20 mg PO every 4 hour - ✔ANS: D What drug might the nurse administer for both analgesic and antitussive effects? A) Codeine B) Aspirin C) Ibuprofen
A nursing student in a pharmacology class asks the instructor why nitrous oxide is used for dental surgery. What is the instructor's most accurate response? A) Nitrous oxide stays in the body for a long time. B) Nitrous oxide does not cause pressure in body compartments. C) Nitrous oxide does not cause muscle relaxation. D) Nitrous oxide does not need to be administered with oxygen. - ✔ANS: C Which nonbarbiturate anesthetic when used with halothane (Fluothane) can cause severe cardiac depression? A. Droperidol (Inapsine) B. Etomidate (Amidate) C. Ketamine (Ketalar) D. Propofol (Diprivan) - ✔ANS: C The nurse is caring for a patient who received halothane as an anesthetic agent. The patient will require additional surgery. When can halothane be used again without risk of halothane's recovery syndrome? A) 1 week B) 2 weeks C) 3 weeks D) 4 weeks - ✔ANS: C The nurse is admitting a patient to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) who received halothane and ketamine as anesthesia. What is the nurse's priority assessment? A) Blood pressure and pulse B) Respirations and airway C) Pain and respirations D) Temperature and airway - ✔ANS: A The nurse should recognize what drug is classified as an amide local anesthetic? A. Lidocaine B. Benzocaine C. Chloroprocaine D. Tetracaine - ✔ANS: A The emergency room nurse is teaching a class for newly hired graduate nurses on the different types of local anesthetic agents. How would the nurse differentiate lidocaine and procaine as a local anesthetic agent? A) Lidocaine is an amide that is broken down slowly and this can lead to toxicity. B) Lidocaine is an ester that cannot become toxic in the system because of rapid metabolism. C) Procaine is an amide that is broken down immediately in the tissues. D) Procaine is metabolized by the liver with risk of toxicity and is classified as an ester. - ✔ANS: A
The patient receives lidocaine as a local anesthetic before insertion of a chest tube. After the procedure the patient tells the nurse, The area is still numb. How long will this last? What is the nurse's best response? A) 15 minutes B) 1 hour C) 2 hours D) 4 hours - ✔ANS: C The nurse is collecting a nursing history from a preoperative patient who is to receive local anesthesia. While taking the admission history, the patient says she is allergic to lidocaine. What is the nurse's priority action? A) Notify the anesthesiologist. B) Cancel the surgery. C) Notify the surgeon. D) Tell the perioperative nurse. - ✔ANS: A What medication, if ordered for an 8-year-old patient, should the nurse question? (Select all that apply.) A) Amiodarone (Cordarone) 400 mg orally per 24 hours B) Labetalol (Normodyne) 100 mg orally b.i.d. C) Phentolamine (Regitine) 1 mg intramuscularly 1 to 2 hours before surgery D) Prazosin (Minipress) 3 mg orally t.i.d. E) Carvedilol (Coreg) 6.25 mg orally b.i.d. - ✔ANS: A, B, E The patient takes labetalol and is scheduled for surgery. The anesthesiologist plans to use halothane as one of the anesthetic agents. The nurse consults with the anesthesiologist to ensure awareness the patient's medication history knowing that the combination of labetalol and halothane will have what effect? A) Excessive hypotension B) Hypoglycemia C) Conduction system disturbances D) Vomiting - ✔ANS: A A 31-year-old male patient has been prescribed propranolol to reduce and prevent angina. What will the nurse assess this patient for related to the medication? (Select all that apply.) A) Sleep disturbance B) Impotence C) Bronchospasm D) Gastric pain E) Tachycardia - ✔ANS: B , C, D A 23-year-old female patient presents at the clinic with a migraine headache. What beta-adrenergic blocking agent might the physician prescribe for the prophylactic prevention of future migraine headaches? A) Propranolol (Inderal)
B. Dilated pupils and improved vision C. Dilated pupils and blurred vision D. Dry eyes and constricted pupils - ✔ANS: C Because the effects of atropine are dose related, at what dose of atropine would the nurse expect to see a patient having difficulty speaking? A. 0.5 mg B. 1.0 mg C. 2.0 mg D. 5.0 mg - ✔ANS: D The nurse is caring for a new mother who received atropine before undergoing a laparoscopic tubal ligation. The patient tells the nurse that she is breast-feeding her baby and asks whether she can breast- feed when she gets home. What is the nurse's best response? A. You can breast-feed when you get home because the drugs given before surgery will be out of your system. B.) You can breast-feed as soon as you get home because atropine will not cross into the breast milk. C) Discard all breast milk for the next week and feed the baby formula before returning to breast- feeding. D) Discard all breast milk for the next 24 hours and feed formula until tomorrow when you can nurse your baby. - ✔ANS: D A 50-year-old female patient received atropine and meperidine (Demerol) preoperatively. After surgery, the patient complains of mouth dryness. What is the nurse's best response? A) Preoperative medications decrease saliva production but it is temporary and will improve. B) This is the result of all of the blood and fluid you lost during surgery. C) You are probably dehydrated. The IV fluids you are receiving will correct the problem. D) The preoperative medication causes an electrolyte imbalance making your mouth feel dry. - ✔ANS: A The nurse is caring for a patient with atropine poisoning. What drug will the nurse administer to reverse these effects? A) Bethanechol B) Neostigmine C) Edrophonium D) Physostigmine - ✔ANS: D The 2-year-old patient with asthma is placed on a short-term dose of prednisone. What important instruction will the nurse provide the patient about this drug? A. Increase intake of carbohydrates. B. The child may receive immunizations while on this drug.
C. Do not stop this medication suddenly; you will have to taper dosage gradually. D. Reduce intake of protein until drug therapy is complete. - ✔ANS: C What glucocorticoids could the nurse only administer orally? A) Cortisone (Cortone Acetate) B) Hydrocortisone (Cortef) C) Prednisone (Deltasone) D) Triamcinolone (Aristocort) - ✔ANS: C The nurse administers prednisone orally at 8 am. When would the nurse expect the drug to reach peak effect? A) 9 to 10 am B) 12 to 1 pm C) 8:30 to 9:00 am D) 4 to 6 pm - ✔ANS: A The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient prescribed prednisone to be taken on alternate days. The patient asks why he cannot take half a pill every day. What is the nurse's best response? A) To eliminate adverse side effects B) To prolong therapeutic effects C) To prevent steroid tolerance D) To decrease adrenal suppression - ✔ANS: D The nurse administers fludrocortisone (Florinef) to a patient diagnosed with salt-losing adrenogenital syndrome and then assesses for what therapeutic action? A) Development of hypokalemia and elevated serum glucose level B) An increase in sodium and water reabsorption and potassium excretion C) Headache, edema, weakness, arrhythmias, and hypertension D) Sodium and water depletion along with potassium retention - ✔ANS: B The nurse is instructing a patient how to mix NPH insulin with regular insulin in one syringe. The nurse tells the patient the mixture must be administered within how long after it is prepared? A) 5 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 20 minutes - ✔ANS: C A patient is admitted to the emergency department in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) with a blood glucose level of 485 mg/dL. The physician orders an initial dose of 25 U insulin IV. Which type of insulin will be administered? A) NPH insulin B) Humulin L insulin C) Humulin N insulin D) Regular insulin -
D) 2,550 mg - ✔ANS: C What instructions would be important to give to a 50-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who has been switched from glyburide (DiaBeta) to repaglinide? A) It is less potent, so you will need to take a larger dose. B) It stimulates insulin production, so you need to eat soon after taking the medication. C) It is more potent and longer lasting, so you should take it every other day. D) The two medications are virtually the same. - ✔ANS: B A patient is brought to the emergency department with severe hypoglycemia. What drug would the nurse prepare to administer intravenously? A) Diazole (Hyperstat) B) Glyburide (DiaBeta) C) Glucagon (GlucaGen) D) Insulin (Humulin R) - ✔ANS: C The nurse provides drug teaching to the patient prescribed captopril (Capoten). What statement made by the patient does the nurse interpret to mean teaching has been effective? A) I will limit my fluid intake to 1,200 mL daily. B) I will call my doctor if I bruise easily or become extremely tired. C) I will move from a reclining to a standing position slowly. D) I will increase my intake of foods high in potassium. - ✔ANS: B The nurse is providing drug teaching for a patient who is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). What drug specific adverse effect will the nurse include in the drug teaching? A) Sedation B) Persistent cough C) Tachycardia D) Rash - ✔ANS: B A patient has been prescribed losartan (Cozaar) for hypertension. What patient teaching points will the nurse include about this drug include? A) Report onset of a cough or fever to health care provider. B) Limit fluid intake to decrease urinary output. C) Monitor blood pressure once a week. D) Take the drug late in the day to prevent sleepiness. - ✔ANS: A A patient has been started on losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin IIreceptor blocker (ARB), for hypertension. After 6 weeks of therapy, it is decided that the losartan alone is not controlling the patient's hypertension. What does the nurse anticipate will be added to the losartan regimen for better control of this patient's hypertension? A) Candesartan (Atacand) B) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hyzaar) C) Captopril (Capoten) D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) -
The nurse cares for a diabetic patient with uncontrolled hypertension who has been prescribed losartan (Cozaar). The health care provider changes this patient's prescription to losartan with hydrochlorothiazide (Hyzaar). What benefits does the nurse anticipate this patient will receive from this drug therapy? (Select all that apply.) A. Slows progression of diabetic nephropathy in type 2 diabetes B. Increases excretion of fluid and sodium resulting in lower blood volume C. Alters electrolyte and acidbase balance D. Improves control of blood pressure due to combination therapy E. Produces far fewer adverse effects resulting from the combination - ✔ANS: A, B The emergency department nurse is asked to prepare a nitroprusside (Nitropress) infusion for a patient being brought to the hospital in an ambulance. The nurse knows this drug is only used in what circumstances? A. Hypertensive emergencies B. Hypertension in a patient having a myocardial infarction C. Hypertension complicated by symptoms of a stroke D. Hypertension associated with diabetic ketoacidosis - ✔ANS: A A triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a 78-year-old man. It is determined that the patient is experiencing severe digoxin toxicity. What drug will the nurse administer immediately? A. Inamrinone (Inocor) B. Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind) C. Verapamil hydrochloride (Calan) D. Quinidine sulfate - ✔ANS: B The nurse is caring for a patient who has digoxin toxicity. As the nurse assesses the changes in the patient's daily activities, what finding could indicate the cause of the toxic level? A) The patient has been sleeping more lately. B) The patient took nitroglycerin for chest pain twice yesterday. C) The patient's daughter brought her a bag of licorice that she has been enjoying. D) The patient's intake of sodium increased lately because she's been eating seafood. - ✔ANS: C The nurse is preparing to administer a digitalizing dosage of digoxin to a geriatric patient. What factors will the nurse assess for first to avoid digoxin toxicity? (Select all that apply.) A. Renal function B. Low body mass C. Hydration D. Assessment of pulse E. Cognitive function - ✔ANS: ABC What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient who is about to begin digoxin therapy? A. Blood glucose levels B. Neurological function