Pharmaceuticals Quiz, Exams of Nursing

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Quiz 1

1. Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare product. A. TRUE B. FALSE 2. Pharmaceutical development is a high-risk undertaking, in which many promising leads prove disappointing. A. TRUE B. FALSE 3. Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions? A. The U.S., Saudi Arabia, and Japan B. The U.S., Western Europe, and Japan C. Western Europe, Australia, and Canada D. Western Europe, Canada, and Saudi Arabia 4. The U.S. accounts for about of the world’s pharmaceutical revenues. A. 30% B. 50% C. 80% D. 95% 5. Which of the following has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry? A. increased international standardization and regulation B. international legalization of DTC advertising C. population growth and increased life expectancies D. all of these 6. According to your manual, which statement accurately describes the predicted relationship between pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities? A. Genomic research company is another term for ethical research company.

13. Most DMs did not start as representatives. A. TRUE B. FALSE 14. How many territories are in a typical district? A. 1 to 2 B. 8 to 12 C. 30 to 40 D. 50 to 100 15. What is the most effective method for grabbing market share? A. comparative selling B. criticizing the competition C. power point presentations D. questioning doctors' choices

Quiz 2

1. Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies. A. TRUE B. FALSE 2. It usually only takes 1 - 2 calls to a physician before he or she commits to prescribing your product. A. TRUE B. FALSE 3. The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed A. TRUE B. FALSE

4. According to Chapter 2 of your manual, which of the following would classify as payers? A. employers B. patients C. pharmacists D. physicians 5. According to your manual, what defines ethical pharmaceutical companies? A. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to consumer organizations B. donating a specified proportion of their revenue to the NIH C. manufacturing generics D. researching and developing novel drugs 6. One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry’s continued investment in R & D is the few new drugs being approved and in development. A. TRUE B. FALSE 7. Thanks to modern medicines, how long are people newly diagnosed with HIV expected to live? A. another 10 years B. another 20 years C. another 5 years D. another 50 years 8. How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890? A. almost 10 years B. almost 15 years C. almost 30 years D. almost 5 years 9. What is a treatment group? A. a group of patients assigned to receive a specified treatment

B. any substance that causes legitimate side effects C. any substance that outperforms a placebo D. any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body

4. Which statement about vitamins is CORRECT? A. Most of the body's required vitamins are manufactured in the bone marrow. B. Most of the body's required vitamins are products of the body's metabolic processes. C. Most of the body's required vitamins must be taken in from outside the body. D. The body manufactures most of the vitamins it requires. 5. ADME testing measures the rate at which the body absorbs the drug, distributes it to the organs necessary to produce the desired effect, metabolizes it into waste material and then excretes it from the body. A. TRUE B. FALSE 6. ADME testing is primarily used in what field? A. epidemiology B. epigenetics C. pharmacodynamics D. pharmacokinetics 7. Which statement about placebos is CORRECT? A. By definition, placebos must be designed to affect everyone equally. B. Placebo effects can be distinguished from drugs because they are always desirable. C. Placebo effects can lead to withdrawal symptoms. D. Placebos can be distinguished from drugs because they do not lead to withdrawal symptoms. 8. On average, only about 5 of 4,000 drugs studied in the laboratory are eventually studied in people. A. TRUE B. FALSE

9. Which statement is TRUE about drugs taken sublingually? A. Sublingual administration is the most common route of administration. B. Sublingual drugs are absorbed directly and almost immediately into the bloodstream. C. Sublingual drugs are used primarily to treat the mouth. D. Sublingual drugs must first pass through the intestinal wall and liver, just like oral drugs, but can be used in patients with swallowing problems. 10. What are 3 of the 7 rights of drug administration? A. the right patient, the right drug, and the right dose B. the right supervision, the right patient, and the right dose C. the right technique, the right documentation, and the right supervision D. the right to information about one's medication, the right to question one's treatment, and the right to a second opinion 11. Pro-drugs are administered in an active form, which is metabolized into an inactive form. A. TRUE B. FALSE 12. The kidney of an 85 - year-old person excretes drugs only as efficiently as that of a 35 - year-old person. A. around 15% B. around 30% C. around 50% D. This is impossible to predict because it depends on such a wide range of other factors. 13. The normal age-related decrease in kidney function can help doctors determine an appropriate dosage based solely on a person’s age. A. TRUE B. FALSE 14. What DIFFERENTIATES a caplet from a tablet? A. Caplets are made of compressed powder. B. Caplets are shaped like capsules and have film coatings to aid in swallowing.

3. Smoking decreases the effectiveness of some drugs. A. TRUE B. FALSE 4. Which of the following statements about dietary supplements is INCORRECT? A. Because dietary supplements are not drugs, interactions with drugs are not a concern. B. Dietary supplements are regulated as foods. C. Dietary supplements contain vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and/or herbs. D. all of these 5. Which statement/s is/are INCORRECT about an ideal drug, or magic bullet as Ehrlich phrased it? A. It does not exist. B. It would be aimed precisely at a disease site. C. It would not harm healthy tissues. D. All of these statements are correct. 6. Which statement accurately differentiates resistance from tolerance? A. Doctors can predict resistance but not tolerance. B. There is no difference between tolerance and resistance. C. Tolerance is caused by genetic mutations, but resistance is always innate. D. Tolerance refers to a person's diminished response to a drug after repeated use, while resistance applies to microorganisms' or cancel cells' abilities to withstand drug effects. 7. Between 3% and 7% of hospital admissions in the United States are estimated to be for treatment of adverse drug reactions. A. TRUE B. FALSE 8. Which statement is true about the universal scale for quantifying the severity of an adverse drug reaction? A. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their chronicity. B. The severities of adverse drug reactions are quantified by their threat to life. C. None of these statements are true because the scale uses different criteria.

D. None of these statements are true because there is no such scale.

9. Why is non-compliance a serious public health concern? A. It erodes trust between physicians and pharmaceutical sales representatives. B. It increases the cost of medical care. C. It indicates a lack of accountability among healthcare providers. D. Noncompliance is a serious public health concern for all of these reasons. 10. Which of the following is NOT eligible for patent protection under U.S. regulations? A. the drug itself B. the method of delivering and releasing the drug into the bloodstream C. the way the drug is made D. Companies can be granted patents for all of these things. 11. Drugs' trade names are often unrelated to their intended use. A. TRUE B. FALSE 12. Like foods and household products, generic drugs are usually lower quality than the brand name drugs for which they are marketed as equivalents. A. TRUE B. FALSE 13. Legally, bioequivalence of different versions of a drug can vary by up to. A. 3.50% B. 10% C. 20% D. The drugs must be 100% equivalent. 14. Which of the following statements about biologics is INCORRECT?

A. as needed B. bioavailable in diet C. quality of drugs D. twice a day

4. What is the medical abbreviation for as needed? A. BID B. PRN C. PSN D. QID 5. Which components might cause patients' different reactions to brand name and generic drugs? A. differences in active ingredients B. differences in inactive ingredients C. differences in both active and inactive ingredients D. Patients' reactions to a brand name and generic drugs are equivalent. 6. All cells have a nucleus. A. TRUE B. FALSE 7. Which of the following does NOT affect drug response? A. the patient's genetic makeup, age, body size, and use of other drugs and dietary supplements. B. the patient's other conditions or diseases. C. whether or not the patient takes the drug properly D. All of these factors influence drug response. 8. Drug reactions are predictable because they do not occur after a person has been previously exposed to the drug one or more times without any allergic reactions.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

9. What is the typical relationship between a drug's site of administration and site of action? A. They are usually somewhat removed from each other. B. They are usually the same site. C. They should not be the same site for economic reasons. D. They should not be the same site for safety reasons. 10. What is CMAX? A. an abbreviation for the maximum concentration of white blood cells B. the peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve C. the time interval within which a given dose of a drug is expected to have a therapeutic effect D. the time of peak plasma concentration on a measuring curve 11. Which of the following is NOT a main concept in clinical pharmacology? A. Drug Distribution and Elimination B. Pharmacodynamics C. Pharmacokinetics D. Pharmacoprocesses 12. Which of the following is NOT a route of drug administration? A. buccal B. Intramuscular C. sublingual D. transfugal 13. How are intradermal drugs delivered? A. by injection under the skin

B. FALSE

4. Only 3 companies account for nearly 90% of all drug wholesale sales. A. TRUE B. FALSE 5. What type of sale bypasses the need for intermediary distributors? A. brokerage sales B. drop shipment sales C. integrated delivery network sales D. manufacturer-direct sales 6. What is a group purchasing organization (GPO)? A. a company that owns and operates 3 or fewer pharmacies B. a wholesaler that obtains drugs from manufacturers and delivers them directly to pharmacists' warehouses C. an entity consisting of two or more hospitals or other health care entities that negotiates contracts on behalf of its members D. any distributor of a prescription drug that conducts at least 22 transactions every 2 years 7. Prescriptions dispensed by mail-order pharmacies are, on average, around than those dispensed by retail pharmacies. A. 3 times smaller B. just slightly smaller C. 3 times larger D. 10 times larger 8. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-stock sale? A. brokerage sales B. dock-to-dock sales C. drop shipments D. All of these are examples of non-stock sales.

9. What is another term for rebates? A. after-market arrangements B. in-state arrangements C. mail-order arrangements D. sell-side arrangements 10. The PDMA is the Prescription Drug Manufacturers Association. A. TRUE B. FALSE 11. A company that owns and operates three or fewer pharmacies is an. A. authorized distributor B. independent drug store C. in-state wholesaler D. integrated drug store 12. Which section of a drug's package insert information covers the usual dosage range? A. clinical pharmacology B. contraindications C. description D. indications and usage 13. Drug labels must include indications, usage information, and contraindications. A. TRUE B. FALSE 14. What should be included in the description section of a drug's package insert information? A. the drug's proprietary name and the established name B. the indications C. the mechanism of action D. warnings

C. The drugs contain identical amounts of the same inactive ingredients. D. The drugs involve the same dosage form and route of administration.

6. A generic drug is to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality. A. bioequivalent B. biophysical C. different D. similar 7. What list is generally considered the most reliable source of information on therapeutically equivalent drug products? A. International Council on Harmonization (ICH) Handbook B. “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence” C. The Blue Book D. The Red Book 8. Which of the following is an Orange Book rating? A. AZ B. B C. BZ D. CZ 9. What is the term for chemical equivalents which, when administered in the same amounts, will provide the same biological or physiological availability as measured by blood and urine levels? A. biological equivalents B. branded generics C. therapeutic alternatives D. therapeutic equivalents 10. What term denotes a drug that is identical or bioequivalent to the originator brand-name drug in dosage form, safety, strength, route, quality, performance, characteristics, and intended use? A. generic B. OTC

C. therapeutic alternative D. vector-based

11. What term denotes the dispensing of an unbranded generic product for the product prescribed? A. chemical substitution B. generic substitution C. pharmaceutical license D. Pharmacist's license 12. What is the duration of a patent challenge? A. 2 weeks B. 4 weeks C. 180 Days D. 1 Year

Quiz 8

1. How is a drug sample closet or cabinet like a grocery store shelf? A. Drug sample closets are like grocery store shelves in all these ways. B. The generic products are usually kept on the top shelf. C. The more expensive products are always kept on the top shelf. D. The more visibility you can give your drug, the more likely that it will be prescribed. 2. Pharmaceutical representatives do not typically store and secure their own drug samples. A. TRUE B. FALSE 3. Sampling is sometimes the most important factor in a pharmaceutical rep’s success. A. TRUE B. FALSE