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Portage Learning PSYC 140 –
Developmental (Lifespan) Psychology
INSTRUCTIONS FOR STUDENTS
Select the best answer for each question. Each question is worth 1 mark. Answers and detailed rationales are provided immediately after each question. SECTION 1: FOUNDATIONS OF DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY (Questions 1–25) QUESTION 1 Which of the following best defines lifespan development? A) The study of how people change only during childhood B) The scientific study of age-related changes in behavior, thinking, emotion, and personality across the entire human life C) The study of genetic influences on behavior only D) The study of cognitive decline in older adults only Correct Answer: B Explanation: Lifespan development examines growth and change from conception to death, encompassing physical, cognitive, and psychosocial domains across all ages. Developmental psychology studies the changes that occur across the human lifespan, whether physical, cognitive, or social. QUESTION 2 What is developmental psychology? A) The study of mental illness across the lifespan B) The study of changes that occur across the human lifespan, whether physical, cognitive, or social C) The study of abnormal behavior in children D) The study of genetic inheritance patterns Correct Answer: B Explanation: Developmental psychology focuses on the changes that occur across the human lifespan—physical, cognitive, and social development from conception to death. QUESTION 3 The nature versus nurture debate in developmental psychology refers to: A) The influence of genetics versus environment on development B) The influence of parents versus peers on development C) The influence of school versus home on development D) The influence of biology versus culture on development
Correct Answer: A Explanation: The nature versus nurture debate centers on whether development is primarily influenced by genetic/biological factors (nature) or environmental factors such as friends, family, and culture (nurture). QUESTION 4 "Nature" in the context of developmental psychology refers to: A) The environmental influences on individuals B) The genetic and biological disposition of an individual C) The cultural influences on development D) The social influences on development Correct Answer: B Explanation: Nature refers to the genetic and biological disposition of an individual—the inherited traits and biological factors that shape development. QUESTION 5 "Nurture" in the context of developmental psychology refers to: A) The genetic inheritance from parents B) The environmental influences on individuals, such as friends, family, and culture C) The biological maturation process D) The genetic predisposition to certain behaviors Correct Answer: B Explanation: Nurture encompasses the environmental influences on individuals, including friends, family, culture, and other external factors that shape development. QUESTION 6 What is maturation? A) The process of learning new skills through observation B) The process of becoming more developed and more advanced, driven by biological factors C) The process of acquiring knowledge through education D) The process of socializing with peers Correct Answer: B Explanation: Maturation refers to the biological process of becoming more developed and more advanced—it is the natural, genetically programmed growth and development that occurs over time. QUESTION 7 The lifespan approach to human development emphasizes that: A) Development only occurs during childhood B) Important changes occur in adulthood as well as childhood C) Development stops after adolescence D) Only physical changes occur after childhood Correct Answer: B
She recruits participants of different ages and tests them all at the same time. This is an example of: A) A longitudinal study B) A cross-sectional study C) A sequential study D) A case study Correct Answer: B Explanation: This is a cross-sectional study because participants of different ages are compared at one point in time. A longitudinal study would follow the same participants over time. QUESTION 12 A researcher follows a group of individuals from age 10 to age 50, testing their cognitive abilities every 5 years. This is an example of: A) A cross-sectional study B) A longitudinal study C) A sequential study D) A correlational study Correct Answer: B Explanation: This is a longitudinal study because the same participants are followed and tested repeatedly over a long period of time. QUESTION 13 What is the "sensitive period" concept in developmental psychology? A) A time when a particular development is most likely to occur and is easiest to achieve, but may still occur later B) A critical period that is absolute and irreversible C) A period when no development can occur D) A period of rapid physical growth only Correct Answer: A Explanation: A sensitive period is an optimal window for certain abilities to develop (e.g., language), but they can still develop later with more difficulty. A critical period is absolute and irreversible. QUESTION 14 Which of the following is TRUE about a critical period versus a sensitive period? A) A critical period is flexible; a sensitive period is fixed B) A sensitive period is absolute; a critical period is optimal C) A critical period is absolute and irreversible; a sensitive period is optimal but not absolute D) Both are the same concept Correct Answer: C Explanation: A critical period is an absolute time frame during which certain experiences must occur for normal development. A sensitive period is an optimal
time for development to occur, but it can still occur later with more difficulty. QUESTION 15 Which theory holds that cognitive development is marked by discrete stages with qualitative differences rather than gradual increases? A) Information processing theory B) Piaget's theory of cognitive development C) Vygotsky's sociocultural theory D) Behaviorism Correct Answer: B Explanation: Piaget's theory proposes discrete stages of development marked by qualitative differences, where children think in fundamentally different ways at different stages, rather than gradual increases in the number or complexity of behaviors. QUESTION 16 Information processing theory compares human thinking to: A) A biological organism B) A computer analysis of data, including sensory input, connections, stored memories, and output C) A social interaction D) A genetic blueprint Correct Answer: B Explanation: Information processing theory compares human thinking processes, by analogy, to computer analysis of data, including sensory input, connections, stored memories, and output. Like a computer, the human brain actively manipulates information. QUESTION 17 Who embraced a cognitive perspective, proposing stages of development that focus on the changes in thinking that children experience from infancy through adolescence? A) Sigmund Freud B) Erik Erikson C) Jean Piaget D) B.F. Skinner Correct Answer: C Explanation: Jean Piaget embraced a cognitive perspective, proposing four stages of cognitive development that focus on the changes in thinking that children experience from infancy through adolescence. QUESTION 18 Jean Piaget's four stages of cognitive development are: A) Oral, anal, phallic, and genital B) Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational
QUESTION 22
What is the primary difference between Piaget and Vygotsky's theories? A) Piaget emphasized social interaction; Vygotsky emphasized individual discovery B) Piaget emphasized individual discovery and stages; Vygotsky emphasized social interaction and cultural context C) Piaget focused on emotional development; Vygotsky focused on physical development D) There is no difference between their theories Correct Answer: B Explanation: Piaget emphasized individual discovery and proposed universal stages of cognitive development. Vygotsky emphasized the role of social interaction, cultural context, and guided learning within the zone of proximal development. QUESTION 23 According to the behavioral perspective, learning occurs through: A) Unconscious drives and conflicts B) Observation and modeling C) Reinforcement, punishment, and conditioning D) Self-actualization and personal growth Correct Answer: C Explanation: The behavioral perspective emphasizes that learning occurs through reinforcement, punishment, and conditioning (classical and operant conditioning). QUESTION 24 Which of the following best describes classical conditioning? A) Learning through reinforcement of voluntary behaviors B) Pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits a response C) Learning through observing others D) Learning through trial and error Correct Answer: B Explanation: Classical conditioning involves pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., food) that automatically triggers an unconditioned response (e.g., salivation). After pairing, the neutral stimulus alone elicits a conditioned response. QUESTION 25 The learning technique that revolves around modeling, where people learn by observing others, is called: A) Classical conditioning B) Operant conditioning C) Social learning D) Cognitive learning Correct Answer: C Explanation: Social learning theory, associated with Albert Bandura, emphasizes that
people learn by observing others, and this learning can occur without necessarily shaping behavior through reward and punishment. SECTION 2: PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT & INFANCY (Questions 26–50) QUESTION 26 What are the three stages of prenatal development in order? A) Embryonic, germinal, fetal B) Germinal, embryonic, fetal C) Fetal, embryonic, germinal D) Germinal, fetal, embryonic Correct Answer: B Explanation: The three stages of prenatal development are: (1) Germinal stage (conception to 2 weeks), (2) Embryonic stage (2 to 8 weeks), and (3) Fetal stage (8 weeks to birth). QUESTION 27 A teratogen is: A) A genetic mutation that causes developmental disorders B) Any agent that can cause harm to the developing fetus C) A hormone that promotes fetal growth D) A nutrient essential for fetal development Correct Answer: B Explanation: A teratogen is any agent (such as drugs, alcohol, infections, or environmental toxins) that can cause harm to the developing fetus during prenatal development. QUESTION 28 What factors influence whether or not a teratogen will have an effect on the fetus? A) The mother's health only B) The amount of the teratogen only C) The timing of the teratogen only D) The mother's health, the amount of the teratogen, and the timing of the teratogen Correct Answer: D Explanation: Three key factors influence teratogen effects: (1) the mother's health, (2) the amount of the teratogen, and (3) the timing of the teratogen. Organs that are in the process of forming are at the greatest risk. QUESTION 29 During which period of prenatal development is the fetus MOST vulnerable to the effects of teratogens? A) Germinal stage
B) Walking, running, and jogging C) Reading, writing, and arithmetic D) Talking, singing, and whispering Correct Answer: B Explanation: Gross motor skills involve the use of large muscle groups and include activities such as walking, running, and jogging (as well as playing sports). QUESTION 34 Which of the following is an example of a fine motor skill? A) Running B) Jumping C) Grasping a small object with fingers D) Kicking a ball Correct Answer: C Explanation: Fine motor skills involve the use of small muscles, particularly in the hands and fingers, for precise movements such as grasping, writing, and drawing. QUESTION 35 According to Piaget, what is the sensorimotor stage? A) Birth to age 2, where infants learn about the world by interacting with it through touching and tasting B) Age 2 to 7, where children develop language and symbolic thinking C) Age 7 to 11, where children develop logical thinking D) Age 11 and up, where children develop abstract reasoning Correct Answer: A Explanation: The sensorimotor stage (birth to age 2) is when infants learn about the world by interacting with it—by touching and tasting. Infants must physically interact with something in order to think about it. QUESTION 36 What is object permanence? A) The idea that objects change shape when moved B) The idea that objects still exist even if you can't see them C) The idea that objects disappear when out of sight D) The idea that objects are permanent and cannot be moved Correct Answer: B Explanation: Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen, heard, or touched. Infants in the sensorimotor stage do not understand object permanence. QUESTION 37 According to Piaget, at what age do infants typically develop object permanence? A) Birth to 2 months B) Around 4 to 8 months
C) Around 8 to 12 months D) Not until age 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation: Infants typically develop object permanence around 8 to 12 months of age. Before this, they act as if objects cease to exist when out of sight. QUESTION 38 What is the name of the strong emotional bond that forms between an infant and their primary caregiver? A) Imprinting B) Attachment C) Bonding D) Social referencing Correct Answer: B Explanation: Attachment is the strong emotional bond that develops between an infant and their primary caregiver. This bond provides the foundation for later social and emotional development. QUESTION 39 According to Mary Ainsworth's Strange Situation, which attachment style is characterized by an infant who explores freely, shows distress when the caregiver leaves, and is happy when the caregiver returns? A) Secure attachment B) Insecure-avoidant attachment C) Insecure-resistant (ambivalent) attachment D) Disorganized attachment Correct Answer: A Explanation: Secure attachment is characterized by infants who use the caregiver as a secure base for exploration, show distress when the caregiver leaves, and are happy and easily comforted when the caregiver returns. QUESTION 40 According to Mary Ainsworth's Strange Situation, which attachment style is characterized by an infant who ignores the caregiver, shows little distress when the caregiver leaves, and ignores the caregiver upon return? A) Secure attachment B) Insecure-avoidant attachment C) Insecure-resistant (ambivalent) attachment D) Disorganized attachment Correct Answer: B Explanation: Insecure-avoidant attachment is characterized by infants who seem indifferent to the caregiver, show little distress when the caregiver leaves, and avoid or ignore the caregiver upon return.
Explanation: Easy temperament is characterized by adaptability, positive mood, regular routines, and easy adjustment to new situations. QUESTION 45 According to the concept of goodness of fit, what is most important for healthy development? A) The child's temperament alone B) The parenting style alone C) The match between the child's temperament and the environment D) The child's intelligence level Correct Answer: C Explanation: Goodness of fit refers to the match between a child's temperament and the demands and expectations of the environment. A good fit promotes healthy development, while a poor fit can lead to problems. QUESTION 46 Which of the following is a language milestone typically achieved by 12 months of age? A) Speaking in full sentences B) First spoken words C) Using complex grammar D) Reading simple books Correct Answer: B Explanation: Most infants say their first words around 12 months of age. They typically coo at 2-3 months, babble at 6 months, and use gestures before first words. QUESTION 47 What is the term for the use of a single word to express a complete thought, such as "doggie" to mean "Look at the doggie!"? A) Telegraphic speech B) Holophrastic speech C) Overextension D) Underextension Correct Answer: B Explanation: Holophrastic speech is the use of a single word to express a complete thought or sentence. This typically occurs around 12-18 months of age. QUESTION 48 What is overregularization in language development? A) Using correct grammar rules appropriately B) Over-applying a grammar rule (e.g., saying "goed" instead of "went") C) Using complex sentence structures D) Speaking in complete sentences Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Overregularization is the process of over-applying a grammar rule to words that are exceptions. For example, a child might say "goed" instead of "went" or "mouses" instead of "mice". QUESTION 49 What is the term for the genetic-environment interaction where a child's genetic predisposition evokes certain responses from the environment? A) Passive genotype-environment interaction B) Evocative genotype-environment interaction C) Active genotype-environment interaction D) Epigenetic interaction Correct Answer: B Explanation: Evocative genotype-environment interaction occurs when a child's genetically influenced characteristics evoke certain responses from others in their environment, which in turn shape development. QUESTION 50 Zeke's father is a volleyball coach and Zeke grew up wanting to play volleyball. In fifth grade, he asked his father to teach him the basic skills. By junior high, he is skilled enough to make the varsity team. What type of genotype-environment interaction best describes this? A) Passive genotype-environment interaction B) Evocative genotype-environment interaction C) Active genotype-environment interaction (niche-picking) D) Non-genetic interaction Correct Answer: C Explanation: This is an example of active genotype-environment interaction (niche-picking), where the individual actively seeks out environments that match their genetic predispositions and interests. Zeke actively sought to learn volleyball because of his genetic predisposition for athletic ability. SECTION 3: EARLY & MIDDLE CHILDHOOD (Questions 51–75) QUESTION 51 According to Piaget, what is the preoperational stage? A) Birth to age 2, where infants learn through sensory and motor experiences B) Age 2 to 7, where children develop symbolic thinking but are egocentric and lack conservation C) Age 7 to 11, where children develop logical thinking D) Age 11 and up, where children develop abstract reasoning Correct Answer: B Explanation: The preoperational stage (ages 2 to 7) is characterized by the
D) The ability to conserve Correct Answer: B Explanation: Egocentrism is the inability to see situations from others' perspectives. Preoperational children assume that others see, hear, and feel the same things they do. QUESTION 56 According to Piaget, what is the concrete operational stage? A) Birth to age 2 B) Age 2 to 7 C) Age 7 to 11, where children develop logical thinking but only about concrete objects and situations D) Age 11 and up, where children develop abstract reasoning Correct Answer: C Explanation: The concrete operational stage (ages 7 to 11) is characterized by the development of logical thinking. Children in this stage can perform mental operations but only about concrete objects and situations—they cannot yet think abstractly. QUESTION 57 What is the difference between concrete operational thought and formal operational thought? A) Concrete operational thought is illogical; formal operational thought is logical B) Concrete operational thought is logical and sequential (conservation, reversibility); formal operational thought includes scientific and abstract reasoning C) Concrete operational thought occurs in adulthood; formal operational thought occurs in childhood D) There is no difference Correct Answer: B Explanation: Concrete operational thought is logical and sequential, involving conservation and reversibility. Formal operational thought goes beyond simple logic to include scientific and abstract reasoning, hypothetical thinking, and deductive logic. QUESTION 58 According to Piaget, at what age do children typically enter the formal operational stage? A) 2 to 7 years B) 7 to 11 years C) 11 years and up D) Not until adulthood Correct Answer: C Explanation: The formal operational stage typically begins around age 11 and continues into adulthood. It is characterized by abstract, hypothetical, and scientific reasoning.
QUESTION 59
Which of the following is a characteristic of formal operational thought? A) Concrete thinking B) Abstract and hypothetical reasoning C) Conservation D) Egocentrism Correct Answer: B Explanation: Formal operational thought is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, reason hypothetically, and use scientific logic to solve problems. QUESTION 60 According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory, what is the primary developmental task of early childhood (ages 3-6)? A) Trust vs. Mistrust B) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt C) Initiative vs. Guilt D) Industry vs. Inferiority Correct Answer: C Explanation: Initiative vs. Guilt is the psychosocial crisis of early childhood (ages 3-6). Children begin to assert their power and control over the world through direct play and social interactions. Success leads to a sense of purpose; failure leads to guilt. QUESTION 61 According to Erikson, what is the developmental task of middle childhood (ages 6-11)? A) Trust vs. Mistrust B) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt C) Initiative vs. Guilt D) Industry vs. Inferiority Correct Answer: D Explanation: Industry vs. Inferiority is the psychosocial crisis of middle childhood (ages 6-11). Children develop a sense of competence and achievement through school and social activities. Success leads to industry; failure leads to inferiority. QUESTION 62 According to Erikson, what is the developmental task of infancy (first year)? A) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt B) Trust vs. Mistrust C) Initiative vs. Guilt D) Industry vs. Inferiority Correct Answer: B Explanation: Trust vs. Mistrust is the psychosocial crisis of infancy (first year). Infants develop trust when caregivers provide reliable care and affection. Mistrust develops when care is inconsistent, neglectful, or unpredictable.
Explanation: Permissive parenting (high warmth, low control) is associated with children who may struggle with self-regulation, have difficulty with authority, and exhibit less self-discipline. QUESTION 67 What is the term for the ability to understand and manage one's own emotions as well as recognize and respond to others' emotions? A) Cognitive development B) Emotional intelligence C) Social referencing D) Attachment Correct Answer: B Explanation: Emotional intelligence is the ability to perceive, understand, and manage one's own emotions and to recognize and respond to others' emotions. It is important for social competence. QUESTION 68 What is social referencing in infancy and early childhood? A) The ability to read and write B) The process of looking to others for emotional cues and information about how to respond to uncertain situations C) The ability to form attachments D) The development of language Correct Answer: B Explanation: Social referencing is the process by which infants and young children look to the emotional expressions of others (especially caregivers) to gather information about how to respond to uncertain or ambiguous situations. QUESTION 69 According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, what is the preconventional level characterized by? A) Following rules based on internalized principles of justice B) Following rules to avoid punishment or gain rewards C) Following rules to maintain social order and gain approval D) Following rules based on universal ethical principles Correct Answer: B Explanation: The preconventional level (typical of young children) is characterized by moral reasoning based on avoiding punishment and obtaining rewards. Morality is externally controlled. QUESTION 70 According to Kohlberg's theory, what is the conventional level of moral development characterized by? A) Following rules to avoid punishment
B) Following rules to maintain social order and gain approval from others C) Following rules based on universal ethical principles D) Following rules only when beneficial to self Correct Answer: B Explanation: The conventional level is characterized by moral reasoning based on maintaining social order, following rules, and gaining approval from others. Individuals at this level conform to societal expectations. QUESTION 71 According to Kohlberg's theory, what is the postconventional level of moral development characterized by? A) Following rules to avoid punishment B) Following rules to maintain social order C) Following rules based on universal ethical principles and individual rights D) Following rules only when beneficial to self Correct Answer: C Explanation: The postconventional level is characterized by moral reasoning based on universal ethical principles, individual rights, and justice. Individuals at this level may challenge rules that violate these principles. QUESTION 72 A child believes that a tall, thin glass contains more juice than a short, wide glass, even though both contain the same amount. This child has not yet developed: A) Object permanence B) Conservation C) Egocentrism D) Animism Correct Answer: B Explanation: This is a classic example of failing the conservation task. The child does not understand that the amount of liquid remains the same despite changes in the container's appearance—a concept typically not mastered until the concrete operational stage. QUESTION 73 What is animism in Piaget's theory? A) The belief that inanimate objects have lifelike qualities and feelings B) The ability to think logically about concrete objects C) The inability to see others' perspectives D) The understanding that objects still exist when out of sight Correct Answer: A Explanation: Animism is the belief that inanimate objects have lifelike qualities, thoughts, and feelings. This is characteristic of the preoperational stage and reflects children's egocentric and magical thinking.
